NUMS MDCAT PAST PAPERS 2023

SubjectsQuestion Number Sequence
Physic1-40
Biology41-95
English96-110
Chemistry111-150

  1. Isochore process: In a system where volume is kept constant, if 142 J heat is transferred to the system, what is the internal energy change when work is done?
    A. 104
    B. 116
    C. 10684
    D. 104
  2. The first law of thermodynamics is the generalization of which law?
    A. Energy
    B. Charge
    C. Momentum
    D. Work
  3. While studying changes in a capacitor, the formula for capacitance is given by which constant?
    A. Dielectric constant
    B. Time constant
    C. Proportionality constant
    D. Electric constant
  4. In parallel combination of two capacitors, their equivalent capacitance is equal to?
    A. ( \frac{C_1 + C_2}{C_1} )
    B. ( \frac{C_1 C_2}{C_1 + C_2} )
    C. ( C_1 C_2 )
    D. ( \frac{C_1 + C_2}{2} )
  5. The SI unit of capacitance of a capacitor is?
    A. Coulomb
    B. Volt
    C. Farad
    D. Ampere
  6. 1 kWh = ?
    A. ( 0.36 \times 10^3 )
    B. ( 36 \times 10^3 )
    C. ( 36 \times 10^6 )
    D. ( 0.036 \times 10^5 )
  7. Volt × Ampere is the unit of?
    A. Current
    B. Voltage
    C. Resistance
    D. Power
  8. If the area of a wire becomes two times its original value, what happens to its resistance?
    A. Double
    B. Remains the same
    C. One-fourth
    D. Decreases
  9. A charged particle enters the magnetic field parallel, what will happen to it?
    A. Deflect toward north
    B. Deflect toward south
    C. Move straight
    D. Move in a circular path
  10. The dimension of magnetic field strength is the same as that of?
    A. Magnetic flux
    B. Magnetic induction
    C. Work done
    D. Magnetic force
  11. The weber is the unit of measure of?
    A. Conductance
    B. Electric current
    C. Magnetic flux
    D. Electric flux
  12. Lenz’s law is also the statement of the law of conservation of?
    A. Charge
    B. Mass
    C. Energy
    D. Pressure
  13. In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the second finger indicates?
    A. Force
    B. Magnetic field
    C. Induced current
    D. Motion
  14. A current generator is a device that converts?
    A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
    B. Chemical energy into mechanical energy
    C. Sound energy into mechanical energy
    D. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
  15. A device that converts AC into DC is called?
    A. Diode
    B. Transistor
    C. Capacitor
    D. Inductor
  16. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called?
    A. Amplification
    B. Rectification
    C. Magnification
    D. Resolution
  17. In full wave rectification, __ diodes are used.
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 3
  18. The time taken for half the number of atoms of a radioactive element to decay is called?
    A. Average life
    B. Mean life
    C. Total life
    D. Half-life
  19. A 32g radioactive element decays and remains 2 after 60 days, what is the half-life of this radioactive element?
    A. 2 days
    B. 5 days
    C. 10 days
    D. 15 days
  20. If the car is slowing down along the negative x-axis, then acceleration will be along?
    A. Positive x-axis
    B. Negative x-axis
    C. Positive y-axis
    D. Negative y-axis
  21. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is?
    A. Along the tangent
    B. Perpendicular to the slope
    C. Parallel to the radius
    D. Anti-parallel to the radius
  22. In perfectly elastic collision:
    A. Only momentum is conserved
    B. Only total energy is conserved
    C. Only kinetic energy is conserved
    D. Momentum, kinetic energy, and total energy, all are conserved
  23. The slope of a displacement-time graph is equal to?
    A. Velocity
    B. Displacement
    C. Acceleration
    D. Distance
  24. The angle of inclination of a plane is same for the following pair of angles?
    A. 60° and 20°
    B. 75° and 15°
    C. 50° and 25°
    D. 45° and 30°
  25. The product of force and time is equal to?
    A. Angular momentum
    B. Force
    C. Change in momentum
    D. Velocity
  26. At what point during the projectile motion of a body is the object’s potential energy (PE) equal to its maximum?
    A. Point of projection
    B. Landing point
    C. Highest point
    D. Just before landing
  27. Power is the dot product of?
    A. Force and displacement
    B. Force and time
    C. Force and velocity
    D. Work and time
  28. The area under a force-displacement graph gives?
    A. Displacement
    B. Power
    C. Work
    D. Acceleration
  29. A body of mass ‘m’ is moving with velocity ‘v’. After a short interval of time, its velocity becomes double. How many times will its K.E increase or decrease?
    A. 2 times increased
    B. 2 times decreased
    C. 4 times increased
    D. 4 times decreased
  30. The relation between radian and degree is?
    A. 1 rad = 57.3°
    B. 1° = 57.3 rad
    C. 1 rad = 1°
    D. 1° = ( \frac{1}{57.3} ) rad
  31. In the case of centripetal force, the value of instantaneous acceleration is given by?
    A. ( a_c = \frac{v}{r} )
    B. ( a_c = \frac{v^2}{r} )
    C. ( a_c = \frac{r}{v} )
    D. ( a_c = v^2 r )
  32. An electric motor turns at 400 revolutions per minute. Its angular velocity in rad/s will be?
    A. ( 20 \pi )
    B. ( 30 \pi )
    C. ( 40 \pi )
    D. ( 30 )
  33. A disc, a hoop, and a sphere are rolling down from an inclined plane simultaneously. Which object will reach the bottom first?
    A. Hoop
    B. Disc
    C. Sphere
    D. All at the same time
  34. In the following figure, the wavelength is?
    A. 2 m
    B. 1.5 m
    C. 1 m
    D. 0.5 m
  35. With an increase in pressure, the speed of sound will?
    A. Increase
    B. Decrease
    C. First increase then decrease
    D. Remain the same
  36. In transverse waves, the portion above the mean level is called?
    A. Wave front
    B. Wave crest
    C. Wave trough
    D. Wavelength
  37. The maximum displacement of particles of a medium, on either side of the mean position of a wave, is called?
    A. Wavelength
    B. Frequency
    C. Amplitude
    D. Crest
  38. Which of the following is true for osmotic pressure?
    A. It is higher in hypertonic solutions
    B. It is lower in hypertonic solutions
    C. It is unaffected by the nature of the solute
    D. It decreases in dilute solutions
  39. A plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution will?
    A. Shrink
    B. Swell
    C. Remain the same
    D. Burst
  40. The role of lymphocytes in immunity is to?
    A. Produce antibodies
    B. Secrete enzymes
    C. Carry oxygen
    D. Perform phagocytosis
  41. The solution of sodium chloride in water is an example of?
    A. Hypertonic solution
    B. Hypotonic solution
    C. Isotonic solution
    D. Aqueous solution
  42. The hormone responsible for the initiation of labor is?
    A. Oxytocin
    B. Progesterone
    C. Estrogen
    D. LH
  43. The primary function of the nervous system is to?
    A. Process information
    B. Provide structure to the body
    C. Produce energy
    D. Secrete hormones
  44. The primary neurotransmitters in the nervous system include?
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. All of the above
  45. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating heart rate and breathing?
    A. Cerebellum
    B. Medulla Oblongata
    C. Cerebrum
    D. Hippocampus
  46. The structure responsible for the production of sperm cells and male secondary sexual characteristics is?
    A. Estrogen
    B. Progesterone
    C. Testosterone
    D. Thyroxin
  47. Leydig cells are responsible for?
    A. Testosterone production
    B. FSH production
    C. Sperm production
    D. Testosterone inhibition
  48. The secretion of estrogen during oogenesis is stimulated by?
    A. Luteinizing Hormone
    B. Inhibin Hormone
    C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
    D. Testosterone Hormone
  49. Which of the following hormones regulate the menstrual cycle?
    A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Estrogen
    B. Luteinizing Hormone and Estrogen
    C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone
    D. Estrogen and Progesterone
  50. Which of the following traits is transmitted directly from an affected father to only his son?
    A. Autosomal
    B. X-linked
    C. Y-linked
    D. X-Y linked
  51. When both the alleles of a gene pair are the same, the organism is said to be?
    A. Heterozygous
    B. Genotype
    C. Homozygous
    D. Phenotype
  52. The theory that says that “mitochondria and chloroplasts are descendants of prokaryotes” is called?
    A. Darwin’s theory of evolution
    B. Lamarckism
    C. Neo-darwinism
    D. Endosymbiotic theory
  53. Homologous organs are?
    A. Organs that perform the same function but have different structures
    B. Organs that perform different functions but have similar structures
    C. Organs that perform similar functions and have similar structures
    D. None of the above
  54. Which of the following may NOT be a mode of action of an antibody?
    A. Neutralizing an antigen
    B. Precipitating an antigen
    C. Secreting cytokines
    D. Enhancing phagocytosis
  55. Pepsinogen is converted into its active form pepsin by?
    A. Proteolytic enzyme action
    B. Dissolving in mucus
    C. Hormonal action
    D. Hydrochloric acid
  56. Intrinsic factor is secreted by?
    A. Pancreas
    B. Liver
    C. Stomach
    D. Duodenum
  57. The primary cells involved in developing immunity are?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Thrombocytes
    D. Erythrocytes
  58. Digestion of which food component starts in the oral cavity?
    A. Fats
    B. Carbohydrates
    C. Proteins
    D. Vitamins
  59. Vaccination is an example of?
    A. Natural passive immunity
    B. Natural active immunity
    C. Acquired passive immunity
    D. Acquired/Artificial active immunity
  60. The heart’s origin is from the?
    A. Left ventricle
    B. Right ventricle
    C. Left atrium
    D. Right atrium
  61. Which feature is absent from cardiac muscle cells?
    A. Intercalated discs
    B. Multinucleate cells
    C. Light and dark bands
    D. Contractile sarcomeres
  62. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibers is mainly responsible for?
    A. Calcium storage
    B. Protein synthesis
    C. Lipid metabolism
    D. Storing cell wastes
  63. The junction between two neurons is called?
    A. Impulse
    B. Synapse
    C. Axon
    D. Cleft
  64. Which hormone is chemically a steroid?
    A. ADH
    B. Thyroxin
    C. Cortisone
    D. Insulin
  65. Underactivity of parathyroid glands causes a drop in blood levels of?
    A. Mg²⁺
    B. Na⁺
    C. K⁺
    D. Ca²⁺
  66. Which of the following proteins establishes the matrix of bone and cartilage?
    A. Elastin
    B. Keratin
    C. Collagen
    D. Histone
  67. Non-competitive inhibitors react with enzymes at?
    A. Allosteric site
    B. Active site
    C. Passive site
    D. Regulatory site
  68. Most enzymes work best at the following temperature?
    A. 30°C
    B. 40°C
    C. 50°C
    D. 20°C
  69. In terms of enzyme action, ‘maximum temperature’ refers to a temperature at which?
    A. Enzymes start to denature
    B. Enzymes start to re-nature
    C. Enzymes work best
    D. Enzymes are reactivated
  70. Blocking of the active site by similar shapes is referred to as?
    A. Competitive inhibitors
    B. Non-competitive inhibitors
    C. Coenzymes
    D. Activators
  71. When light falls on P-700, which event is likely to occur?
    A. It induces photolysis
    B. Gains hydrogen
    C. Accepts electrons
    D. It is oxidized
  72. Which of the following molecules are released after the completion of the light reaction and then utilized in the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
    A. ATP and NADP⁺
    B. ADP and NADP⁺
    C. ADP and NADPH
    D. ATP and NADPH
  73. Which are the end products of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
    A. ATP and NADPH
    B. ATP and glucose
    C. Glucose and NADP
    D. ATP and water
  74. Synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis takes place at the region?
    A. Stroma
    B. Thylakoid
    C. Matrix
    D. Cisternae
  75. The complete, mature, and infectious virus particle is known as?
    A. Venome
    B. Genome
    C. Virion
    D. Capsid
  76. All viruses are?
    A. Autotrophs
    B. Heterotrophs
    C. Parasites
    D. Predators
  77. The structure that increases the pathogenicity of bacteria is?
    A. Capsule
    B. Cell wall
    C. Slime
    D. Cell membrane
  78. The smallest known bacteria belong to the genus?
    A. Mycoplasma
    B. Streptococcus
    C. Escherichia
    D. Bacillus
  79. Large, insoluble food particles are broken down by?
    A. Stomach
    B. Gall bladder
    C. Small intestine
    D. Colon
  80. Secondary cell walls in plants are present in?
    A. Primary cell wall
    B. Secondary cell wall
    C. Tertiary cell wall
    D. Lignified cell walls
  81. What distinguishes fungal cell walls from plant cell walls?
    A. Fungal cell walls contain chitin
    B. Fungal cell walls contain cellulose
    C. Plant cell walls contain chitin
    D. Plant cell walls contain silica
  82. Pollination in plants is facilitated by?
    A. Chloroplasts
    B. Leucoplasts
    C. Amyloplasts
    D. Pollen grains
  83. The tonoplast is the membrane separating?
    A. Vacuole and Cytoplasm
    B. Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm
    C. Vacuole and Stroma
    D. Vacuole and Cytoplasm
  84. Each centriole is composed of?
    A. Two triplets of microtubules
    B. Three triplets of microtubules
    C. Five triplets of microtubules
    D. Nine triplets of microtubules
  85. The folds of the inner membrane of mitochondria are called?
    A. Cristae
    B. Mesosome
    C. Infolds
    D. Thylakoids
  86. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which zone is embedded inside?
    A. Hydrophobic
    B. Hydrophilic
    C. Globular
    D. Filamentous
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
    A. Metabolism of lipids
    B. Transmission of impulses
    C. Transport of materials
    D. Synthesis of glycoproteins
  2. Active and passive transport across the membrane of cells occurs through?
    A. Lipids
    B. Integral proteins
    C. Charged pores
    D. Carbohydrates
  3. Lysosomes are spherical sacs, surrounded by a single membrane and contain?
    A. Mitochondria
    B. Golgi bodies
    C. Lysosomal enzymes
    D. Chloroplasts
  4. The most abundant organic compound in mammalian cells is?
    A. Water
    B. Lipids
    C. Carbohydrates
    D. Proteins
  5. Thermal stability of organisms in the environment is because of which characteristic of water?
    A. Solvent property
    B. Heat capacity
    C. Ionization
    D. Protection
  6. The C-H bonds in lipids are important for?
    A. Insulating material
    B. Providing more energy
    C. As exoskeleton
    D. As cuticle of leaves
  7. The sweetest carbohydrates among all are?
    A. Monosaccharides
    B. Disaccharides
    C. Oligosaccharides
    D. Polysaccharides
  8. The study of the Earth’s atmosphere and weather is called?
    A. Meteorology
    B. Oceanography
    C. Geophysics
    D. Hydrology
  9. The process by which green plants make food using sunlight is called?
    A. Respiration
    B. Transpiration
    C. Photosynthesis
    D. Fermentation
  10. The production of glucose in plants occurs in which organelle?
    A. Mitochondria
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Nucleus
    D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  11. The digestive enzyme amylase is secreted by?
    A. Liver
    B. Pancreas
    C. Salivary glands
    D. Stomach
  12. The process by which a single cell divides into two identical cells is called?
    A. Mitosis
    B. Meiosis
    C. Binary fission
    D. Budding
  13. The primary component of the cell membrane is?
    A. Carbohydrates
    B. Proteins
    C. Phospholipids
    D. Nucleic acids
  14. The universal genetic code is written in the form of?
    A. Codons
    B. Ribosomes
    C. RNA molecules
    D. Polypeptides
  15. The total energy possessed by an object in motion is called?
    A. Kinetic energy
    B. Potential energy
    C. Mechanical energy
    D. Thermal energy
  16. The unit of electric charge is?
    A. Coulomb
    B. Ampere
    C. Volt
    D. Ohm
  17. The mass of an object is measured in?
    A. Kilograms
    B. Meters
    C. Joules
    D. Newtons
  18. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?
    A. Velocity
    B. Force
    C. Speed
    D. Acceleration
  19. The frequency of a wave is defined as?
    A. The distance between two successive crests
    B. The number of complete waves passing a point per second
    C. The maximum displacement of a wave
    D. The time taken for one complete wave to pass
  20. The principle of conservation of momentum applies to?
    A. Elastic collisions
    B. Inelastic collisions
    C. Both elastic and inelastic collisions
    D. Only elastic collisions in vacuum
  21. The force of gravity on an object is called?
    A. Weight
    B. Mass
    C. Density
    D. Pressure
  22. The power of a lens is measured in?
    A. Joules
    B. Watts
    C. Diopters
    D. Meters
  23. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel at?
    A. 3 x 10^8 m/s
    B. 3 x 10^10 m/s
    C. 3 x 10^6 m/s
    D. 3 x 10^5 m/s
  24. The wavelength of light is related to its?
    A. Frequency
    B. Amplitude
    C. Energy
    D. Intensity
  25. The law of reflection states that?
    A. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
    B. The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection
    C. The angle of incidence is half of the angle of reflection
    D. The angle of reflection is twice the angle of incidence
  26. The work done to move a charge between two points in an electric field is called?
    A. Electric current
    B. Voltage
    C. Electrical resistance
    D. Electric power
  27. The unit of electrical resistance is?
    A. Ampere
    B. Volt
    C. Ohm
    D. Watt
  28. In a parallel circuit, the total resistance is?
    A. Equal to the sum of the individual resistances
    B. Equal to the inverse of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
    C. The same as the resistance of the largest resistor
    D. The same as the resistance of the smallest resistor
  29. The magnetic field around a current-carrying wire forms?
    A. A straight line
    B. A circle
    C. A spiral
    D. A rectangular loop
  30. The electric field is strongest at?
    A. The center of a charged sphere
    B. The surface of a charged conductor
    C. The midpoint between two equal charges
    D. At infinity from the charge
  31. The force between two charges is inversely proportional to?
    A. The square of the distance between them
    B. The square of the charge
    C. The distance between them
    D. The product of the charges
  32. The voltage across a capacitor is directly proportional to?
    A. The current through it
    B. The time constant
    C. The charge on it
    D. The resistance in the circuit
  33. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by the formula?
    A. ( E = \frac{1}{2} C V^2 )
    B. ( E = \frac{1}{2} C V )
    C. ( E = C V^2 )
    D. ( E = C V )
  34. The unit of electric field strength is?
    A. Volt per meter
    B. Newton per Coulomb
    C. Coulomb per meter
    D. Newton per meter
  35. The frequency of an alternating current is measured in?
    A. Joules
    B. Hertz
    C. Amperes
    D. Volts
  36. The energy of a photon is proportional to its?
    A. Wavelength
    B. Frequency
    C. Amplitude
    D. Intensity
  37. The photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of?
    A. Light
    B. Sound
    C. Water waves
    D. Electrons
  38. The emission spectrum of hydrogen consists of?
    A. Continuous spectrum
    B. Discrete lines
    C. Broad band
    D. Wide spectrum
  39. The Bohr model of the atom explains?
    A. Electron orbits
    B. Nuclear decay
    C. Chemical bonding
    D. Electrical conductivity
  40. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle depends on its?
    A. Mass and velocity
    B. Frequency and amplitude
    C. Charge and energy
    D. Temperature and velocity
  41. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is called?
    A. Ionization energy
    B. Electron affinity
    C. Binding energy
    D. Excitation energy
  42. The principle quantum number defines the?
    A. Energy of an electron
    B. Shape of an electron orbit
    C. Orientation of an electron’s orbital
    D. Spin of an electron
  43. The uncertainty principle in quantum mechanics was proposed by?
    A. Schrödinger
    B. Heisenberg
    C. Bohr
    D. Einstein
  44. Which of the following is a feature of an ionic bond?
    A. Electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
    B. Sharing of electrons between atoms
    C. Formation of a dipole
    D. Overlapping of orbitals
  45. The cracking method used to obtain better quality gasoline is?
    A. Thermal
    B. Catalytic
    C. Steam
    D. Radiations
  46. Homocyclic organic compounds are subdivided into two types namely?
    A. Alicyclic and Aromatic
    B. Open chain and branched chain
    C. Aromatic and non-aromatic
    D. Antiaromatic and anti-alicyclic
  47. Acetophenone can be formed by which of the following reactions of benzene?
    A. Alkylation
    B. Acylation
    C. Halogenation
    D. Nitration
  48. The general formula of cycloalkanes is?
    A. ( C_nH_{2n} )
    B. ( C_nH_{2n+2} )
    C. ( C_nH_{2n-2} )
    D. ( C_nH_{2n-1} )
  49. Which of the following reactions differentiates alcohol from phenol?
    A. Lucas test
    B. Halogenation
    C. Nitration
    D. Iodine test
  50. The order of reactivity of alcohol when the C-O bond breaks is?
    A. Tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol > primary alcohol
    B. Secondary alcohol > primary alcohol > tertiary alcohol
    C. Primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol
    D. Tertiary alcohol > primary alcohol > secondary alcohol
  51. C₆H₅COOH is the general formula of?
    A. Ether
    B. Carboxylic acid
    C. Ketones
    D. Carbaldehyde
  52. Catalytic reduction of aldehydes and ketones forms?
    A. Alcohol
    B. Carboxylic acid
    C. Aldehyde
    D. Ketone
  53. Which of the following reacts with carboxylic acids to form esters?
    A. Aldehyde
    B. Alkyl halide
    C. Ketones
    D. Alcohol
  54. Hydrolysis of nitriles produces?
    A. Carboxylic acid
    B. Aldehydes
    C. Ketones
    D. Esters
  55. What is the mass of sulfur in 245g of H₂SO₄?
    A. 32g
    B. 24g
    C. 16g
    D. 8g
  56. How many moles of NH₃ are produced from 2.8 moles of N₂ and H₂?
    A. 25 moles
    B. 2 moles
    C. 1 mole
    D. 7.5 moles
  57. The amount of energy associated with quantum radiation is?
    A. Photon
    B. Wavelength
    C. Frequency
    D. Velocity
  58. The value of the azimuthal quantum number l will be?
    A. 0, 1, 2
    B. 0, 1, 2, 3
    C. 1, 2, 3
    D. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
  59. The total number of directions of f-orbitals in space is?
    A. 5
    B. 3
    C. 7
    D. 6
  60. Which of the following quantum numbers is not obtained from Schrödinger’s equation?
    A. Principal quantum number
    B. Spin quantum number
    C. Azimuthal quantum number
    D. Magnetic quantum number
  61. The electronic configuration for degenerate orbitals is explained by?
    A. Aufbau principle
    B. Hund’s rule
    C. Pauli exclusion principle
    D. Bohr’s model
  62. The idea that molecules in gases are in constant movement is called?
    A. Kinetic theory of gases
    B. Crystal field theory
    C. Molecular orbital theory
    D. Transition state theory
  63. The SI unit for pressure is?
    A. mmHg
    B. Pascal
    C. Bar
    D. Torr
  64. If both temperature and volume of a gas are doubled, the pressure will?
    A. Cannot be predicted
    B. Is reduced to ¼
    C. Remains unchanged
    D. Is doubled

NUMS MDCAT Answer Key 2023

1. D2. A3. D4. A
5. D6. B7. A8. D
9. B10. B11. D12. B
13. D14. A15. D16. B
17. A18. D19. A20. A
21. B22. B23. D24. D
25. A26. B27. D28. A
29. B30. D31. A32. B
33. B34. D35. A36. A
37. D38. B39. A40. D
41. A42. A43. B44. B
45. B46. D47. A48. A
49. B50. D51. A52. B
53. B54. A

Similar Posts

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *