NUMS MDCAT PAST PAPERS 2024

Biology

1. Which function can be attributed to plasma membrane lipids?
A. Restricting the entry of certain molecules.
B. Maintaining membrane flexibility.
C. Facilitating intracellular reactions.
D. Controlling membrane potential.

2. Loss reactivity of sucrose is due to its:
A. High solubility in water.
B. Polar nature.
C. Unavailability of functional groups.
D. Alpha-1,2 glycosidic linkage.

3. Sucrose is used as a transport carbohydrate instead of glucose because:
A. It is a disaccharide.
B. It is non-reducing sugar.
C. It is soluble in water.
D. It does not change osmotic potential of water.

4. Coronavirus is an enveloped virus. Hand sanitizers and surface cleaners were recommended to avoid COVID epidemic. Which property of coronavirus made these products effective?
A. pH sensitivity.
B. Heat sensitivity.
C. ss RNA genome.
D. Hypotonicity.

5. Proteins with tertiary structure are helpful in:
A. Carrying messages from glands to target organs.
B. Maintaining epithelial lining of skin.
C. Making the matrix of connective tissue.
D. Helping muscle contraction.

6. Rebounding is a process of straightening the curly hairs. Which bond is targeted by oxidizing agents used during this process?
A. Peptide bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Disulfide bridge
D. Hydrogen bond

7. Ions of heavy metal are harmful for living organisms because of their ability to:
A. Create muscle atrophy
B. Interfere with fat metabolism
C. Break disulfide bonds
D. Destabilize proteins

8. Choose the option showing the correct labeling of the diagram:
A. A: CO₂, B: H₂O, C: O₂, D: Sugar
B. A: H₂O, B: Sugar, C: CO₂, D: O₂
C. A: CO₂, B: Sugar, C: H₂O, D: O₂
D. A: Sugar, B: CO₂, C: O₂, D: H₂O

9. Which mechanism would be compromised in the absence of cytochrome complex during the light reaction of photosynthesis?
A. Reduction of reaction center chlorophyll
B. Photolysis of water
C. Oxidation of primary electron receptor
D. Establishment of proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane

10. During glycolysis, isomerization takes place in the formation of:
A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and 2-phosphoglycerate
B. G3P and fructose-6-phosphate
C. PEP and pyruvate
D. Fructose-6-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate

11. Presence of PEP carboxylase in plants enables them to avoid photorespiration due to:
A. Presence of the enzyme in high concentration
B. Absence of Rubisco
C. PEP carboxylase being strictly carboxylase
D. High yield of enzyme

12. Fats and proteins can be used as respiratory fuel. Which of the following serves as a common molecule produced through their catabolism?
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Pyruvate
C. G3P
D. Lactate

13. Which of the following viruses has a double-stranded DNA genome?
A. Rubella
B. Influenza
C. HIV
D. Smallpox

14. An enzyme is capable of acting on a wide range of related substrates. Which of the following is a property of this enzyme?
A. Inflexible active site
B. Regulatory enzyme
C. Non-regulatory enzyme
D. Highly specific enzyme

15. All are the characteristics responsible for better survival of encapsulated bacteria except:
A. High pathogenicity
B. Withstand dehydration
C. Strict adhesion to internal surfaces
D. Easy recognition by host

16. Probiotics in infants’ formula milk are the normal bacterial flora to humans. They keep babies healthy by doing all of the following actions except:
A. Produce important vitamins
B. Kill pathogenic bacteria
C. Prevent colonization of pathogens
D. Enhance immunity

17. Activation of all of the following enzymes needs a regulatory molecule except:
A. Pepsinogen
B. Trypsinogen
C. Erepsin
D. Chymotrypsinogen

18. Weakened papillary muscles of the right ventricle would result in constant backflow of blood into:
A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium

19. A person with a removed gall bladder experiences difficulty in fat digestion due to:
A. Absence of bile
B. Uncontrolled release of bile
C. Reduced alkalinity of bile
D. Absence of bile pigments

20. Enzyme catalase protects the plant cell from:
A. Dehydration
B. Photorespiration
C. Toxic effect of alcohol metabolism
D. Protein loss

21. Which of the following sets of characteristics are related to veins?
A. Present, Thick, 7–9 µm
B. Absent, Thick, 40–50 µm
C. Present, Thinner, 40–50 µm
D. Absent, Thinner, 40–50 µm

22. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of the lymphatic system?
A. Blood pressure
B. Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
C. Blood composition
D. Defense mechanism

23. The presence of which molecules distinguishes blood from interstitial fluid?
A. Large proteins and electrolytes
B. Glucose and RBCs
C. Antibodies and electrolytes
D. RBCs and large proteins

24. Plants growing in saline soil face the problem of dehydration due to:
A. Ψw of soil > Ψw of root
B. Ψs of soil < Ψs of root
C. Ψw of root > Ψw of soil
D. Ψw of root = Ψw of soil

25. During the COVID-19 epidemic, the plasma of recovered patients was injected into COVID patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this?
A. Plasminogen
B. Interferons
C. Antibodies
D. Interleukin-1

26. Choose the one which is an example of artificial active immunity:
A. Fetus receiving antibodies of mother through placenta
B. Mother receiving antibodies
C. Baby receiving MMR shots
D. Prevention of a disease due to a previous infection

27. Which of the following types of T cells are required for the activation of B cells?
A. Helper T cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Suppressor T cells
D. Memory T cells

28. What is the fate of a neurotransmitter after the transmission of a nerve impulse across the synapse?
A. It is taken into the post-synaptic neuron
B. Remains bound to the post-synaptic membrane
C. Remains stray in the synaptic cleft
D. Broken down by enzymes

29. Which immediate change is brought about in the post-synaptic membrane on binding with an excitatory neurotransmitter?
A. Calcium gates open
B. Sodium gates open
C. Sodium gates close
D. Sodium-potassium pump ceases to work

30. During the conduction of a nerve impulse, hyperpolarization would not occur if:
A. Sodium gates didn’t close in time
B. Potassium gates were not so leaky
C. Sodium-potassium pump stopped working
D. Calcium gates opened instantly

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of an electrical synapse?
A. Presence of neurotransmitters
B. Transmission of nerve impulse
C. Sodium-potassium gradient
D. Absence of neurotransmitter

32. Which option given below characterizes the refractory period?
A. Reversal of charges across the neural membrane
B. Change in the type of ions across the membrane
C. Next impulse can be conducted
D. Membrane potential +50mV

33. During the complex activity of flight, birds require the coordination of many skeletal muscles. Which part of their brain has to be well developed?
A. Amygdala
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Thalamus

34. Which part of the brain is actively used by a mathematician trying to formulate a new equation?
A. Hippocampus
B. Cerebrum
C. Amygdala
D. Pons

35. A desert mammal faces severe dehydration on a hot sunny day. Which internal condition would lead to secretion of ADH?
A. High osmotic pressure of blood
B. High blood pressure
C. Low osmotic pressure of blood
D. Low solute potential of blood

36. Which disorder would be diagnosed by a doctor on seeing a patient with thick and dry skin, puffy eyes, and low metabolic rate?
A. Cretinism
B. Cushing’s disease
C. Myxedema
D. Addison’s disease

37. Choose the one related to hypoparathyroidism:
A. Kidney stones
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Weakness of muscles
D. Tetany

38. Choose the mismatched pair:
A. Graafian follicle – Progesterone
B. ICSH – Interstitial cell
C. Estrogen – Inhibits FSH
D. LH – Ovulation

39. Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism?
A. Aggregation of platelets during wound healing
B. Labor contraction
C. Milk secretion during suckling
D. Control of body temperature

40. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as bicarbonate ions. Choose the event not taking place during gaseous exchange at the tissue level:
A. Formation of HHb
B. Formation of sodium bicarbonate
C. Formation of oxyhemoglobin
D. Chloride shift

41. All are related to “X” except:
A. It passes information to the brain
B. It passes information to sensory neurons
C. It synapses with the axon of sensory neurons
D. It is present in gray matter

42. Which one is the function of plasma membrane proteins?
A. Restrict entry of polar molecules
B. Prevention of freezing during cold weather
C. Movement of ions in and out of the cell
D. Maintenance of membrane flexibility

43. A lizard detaches its tail when attacked by a predator. This is an example of:
A. Autophagy
B. Autolysis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Intracellular digestion

44. Choose the option showing the correct set of characteristics for intermediate filaments:
A. Diameter: 5–10 nm, Composition: Vimentin, Function: Mechanical support
B. Diameter: 20–25 nm, Composition: Tubulin, Function: Cilia flagella
C. Diameter: 5–10 nm, Composition: Tubulin, Function: Muscle contraction
D. Diameter: 7 nm, Composition: Tubulin, Function: Cytosis

45. Nucleoproteins are involved in:
A. Cell-to-cell recognition
B. Passing hereditary information to the next generation
C. Ensuring fast speed of nerve impulse
D. Acting as a cell surface marker

46. If the reproductive cycle of a female starts on 1st July, the ovulation is most likely to occur on:
A. 1st August
B. 28th July
C. 24th July
D. 5th August

47. Which of the following would be produced as a result of reduction division during gametogenesis?
A. Oogonium
B. Primary oocyte
C. Primary spermatocyte
D. Secondary oocyte

48. What will be the probability of purple and terminal flowers in the F2 generation if we cross true-breeding purple axial flower plants with white terminal flower plants?
A. 1/16
B. 3/16
C. 9/16
D. 1/2

49. A carrier female for hemophilia is married to an affected male. What would be the probable percentage for their sons to be affected?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 0%

50. Which of the following is not related to the ABO blood group system?
A. It is an example of multiple alleles
B. IAI^AIA and IBI^BIB are codominant
C. IOI^OIO doesn’t code for any antigen
D. It obeys Mendel’s laws of inheritance

51. Which of the following options is correct for pattern baldness?
A. It is a sex-linked trait
B. Occurs due to hormonal differences between sexes
C. Heterozygous male is normal
D. Heterozygous female is normal

52. You must have often heard about the hamstring injury of players. Which of the following is correct about hamstring muscles?
A. It is an extensor muscle
B. Its insertion is on the tibia
C. Originates from the pelvic girdle and top of the femur
D. Originates from the ilium and femur

53. Choose the correct option for muscles in a relaxed position:
A. Exposed binding sites on actin
B. Broad H-zone in the sarcomere
C. Formation of cross bridges
D. Calcium released in cytosol

54. Children of a mason do not inherit strong muscles developed by their father due to hard labor. This is an example of:
A. Survival of the fittest
B. Overproduction of offspring
C. Not inheriting acquired characters
D. Use and disuse of organs

55. If 2.0g of Calcium and 4.0g of Sulfur are available for reaction, the amount of product formed will be:
A. 4.6g
B. 1.6g
C. 2.6g
D. 3.6g

Chemistry

56. Select the greatest number of particles in the following:
A. 2g of Sodium (atomic mass = 23)
B. 2g of Hydrogen gas (atomic mass = 1)
C. 2g of Nitrogen gas (atomic mass = 14)
D. 2g of Carbon dioxide gas (atomic mass: C = 12, O = 16)

57. The value of “l” for a 4p orbital is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

58. The element having the electronic configuration of noble gas notation (Kr) 5s²4d⁶ is:
A. Sr (Strontium)
B. Ru (Ruthenium)
C. Pd (Palladium)
D. Zr (Zirconium)

59. Choose the allowed set of quantum numbers from the following:
A. n=3,l=2,m=0,s=+1/2n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = +1/2n=3,l=2,m=0,s=+1/2
B. n=1,l=3,m=0,s=−1/2n = 1, l = 3, m = 0, s = -1/2n=1,l=3,m=0,s=−1/2
C. n=4,l=3,m=4,s=+1/2n = 4, l = 3, m = 4, s = +1/2n=4,l=3,m=4,s=+1/2
D. n=4,l=2,m=4,s=−1/2n = 4, l = 2, m = 4, s = -1/2n=4,l=2,m=4,s=−1/2

60. A gas has a volume of 10 dm³ at 10°C. At what temperature is the volume of the gas reduced to half?
A. 283K
B. 566K
C. 142K
D. 373K

61. The relationship between the absolute temperature and the velocities of gas molecules is given by:
A. Cavg=3RT/MC_{avg} = \sqrt{3RT/M}Cavg​=3RT/M​
B. PV=nRTPV = nRTPV=nRT
C. v=2Ek/mv = \sqrt{2Ek/m}v=2Ek/m​
D. PV=13mNc2PV = \frac{1}{3} mNc^2PV=31​mNc2

62. The maximum polarizability is exhibited in:
A. C2H2C_2H_2C2​H2​
B. C2H4C_2H_4C2​H4​
C. C3H6C_3H_6C3​H6​
D. C5H12C_5H_{12}C5​H12​

63. Which of the following compounds has no characteristic heat of fusion?
A. NaCl
B. Aluminum oxide
C. Iron oxide
D. Silicates

64. If the external pressure is reduced to half, the boiling point of ethanol will be:
A. Greater than 78°C
B. Less than 78°C
C. Equal to 78°C
D. Reduced to half

65. Iodine is a poor conductor of electricity because of its:
A. Face-centered cubic structure
B. Body-centered cubic structure
C. Tetragonal structure
D. Hexagonal structure

66. Predict the shape of CsClCsClCsCl having a radius ratio of 0.93:
A. Tetrahedral
B. Octahedral
C. Body-centered cubic
D. Hexagonal

67. The solubility of PbSPbSPbS at 25°C is 4.0×10−284.0 \times 10^{-28}4.0×10−28. What is the ionic concentration?
A. 4×10−144 \times 10^{-14}4×10−14
B. 2×10−142 \times 10^{-14}2×10−14
C. 1×10−141 \times 10^{-14}1×10−14
D. 5×10−145 \times 10^{-14}5×10−14

68. What conditions should be applied to minimize leftover reactants in ammonia synthesis?
A. 200 atm, 500°C
B. 400 atm, 200°C
C. 100 atm, 400°C
D. 200 atm, 400°C

69. Select the buffer solution having the highest pH:
A. 0.1M CH3COOHCH_3COOHCH3​COOH, 0.01M CH3COO−CH_3COO^-CH3​COO−
B. 0.1M CH3COOHCH_3COOHCH3​COOH, 0.05M CH3COO−CH_3COO^-CH3​COO−
C. 0.1M CH3COOHCH_3COOHCH3​COOH, 0.10M CH3COO−CH_3COO^-CH3​COO−
D. 0.1M CH3COOHCH_3COOHCH3​COOH, 0.15M CH3COO−CH_3COO^-CH3​COO−

70. Placing a rod of iron metal in a solution of CuSO4CuSO_4CuSO4​:
A. CuCuCu will be deposited
B. FeFeFe is precipitated out
C. CuCuCu and FeFeFe both dissolve
D. No reaction takes place

71. In CH3ClCH_3ClCH3​Cl, the bond length of C−ClC-ClC−Cl is 176.7 pm and the covalent radius of Cl is 99.4 pm. The covalent radius of carbon is:
A. 66.3 pm
B. 276.1 pm
C. 175.4 pm
D. 77.3 pm

72. Correct order of decreasing electron affinities of Group VII elements is:
A. F>Cl>Br>IF > Cl > Br > IF>Cl>Br>I
B. Cl>F>Br>ICl > F > Br > ICl>F>Br>I
C. F<Cl<Br<IF < Cl < Br < IF<Cl<Br<I
D. Cl<F<Br<ICl < F < Br < ICl<F<Br<I

73. Predict the highest bond energy of the following single bonds:
A. C−HC-HC−H
B. C−NC-NC−N
C. C−OC-OC−O
D. C−CC-CC−C

74. Identify the type of hybridization of nitrogen in NCl3NCl_3NCl3​:
A. spspsp
B. sp2sp^2sp2
C. sp3sp^3sp3
D. dsp2dsp^2dsp2

75. Compound X reacts with Na2CO3Na_2CO_3Na2​CO3​ to produce Compound Y and CO2+H2OCO_2 + H_2OCO2​+H2​O. Compound Y is:
A. CH3−CH=CH2CH_3-CH=CH_2CH3​−CH=CH2​
B. CH3CHOCH_3CHOCH3​CHO
C. CH3COOHCH_3COOHCH3​COOH
D. CH3COONaCH_3COONaCH3​COONa

76. Identify Compound A: Compound A reacts with RCOONa+NaI+H2ORCOONa + NaI + H_2ORCOONa+NaI+H2​O:
A. Acetone
B. Acetic acid
C. Acetamide
D. Acetic anhydride

77. Select the carboxylic acid with the highest melting point:
A. Ethanoic acid
B. Propanoic acid
C. Butanoic acid
D. Pentanoic acid

78. Identify the following compound with the shortest bond length:
A. Methylamine
B. Formamide
C. Formic acid
D. Ethanol

79. Identify the alkene which gives only one type of aldehyde upon ozonolysis:
A. 1-pentene
B. 2-methylpropene
C. 2-butene
D. 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene

80. Identify the correct increasing order of reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic addition:
A. HCHO<CH3CHO<CH3COCH3<CH3CH2CHOHCHO < CH_3CHO < CH_3COCH_3 < CH_3CH_2CHOHCHO<CH3​CHO<CH3​COCH3​<CH3​CH2​CHO
B. CH3CHO<CH3COCH3<CH3CH2CHO<HCHOCH_3CHO < CH_3COCH_3 < CH_3CH_2CHO < HCHOCH3​CHO<CH3​COCH3​<CH3​CH2​CHO<HCHO
C. CH3CH2CHO<CH3COCH3<HCHO<CH3CHOCH_3CH_2CHO < CH_3COCH_3 < HCHO < CH_3CHOCH3​CH2​CHO<CH3​COCH3​<HCHO<CH3​CHO
D. CH3CH2CHO<CH3COCH3<CH3CHO<HCHOCH_3CH_2CHO < CH_3COCH_3 < CH_3CHO < HCHOCH3​CH2​CHO<CH3​COCH3​<CH3​CHO<HCHO

81. Bakelite is formed upon polymerization of:
A. Phenol + Formaldehyde (base catalyst)
B. Phenol + NaOH + H2OH_2OH2​O
C. Phenol + H2SO4+H2OH_2SO_4 + H_2OH2​SO4​+H2​O
D. Phenol + Acetone

82. The increasing order of reactivity of alcohols towards nucleophiles is:
A. 2-methyl-2-pentanol < 2-methyl-1-pentanol < 3-methyl-2-pentanol
B. 2-methyl-2-pentanol > 3-methyl-2-pentanol > 2-methyl-1-pentanol
C. 2-methyl-1-pentanol < 3-methyl-2-pentanol < 2-methyl-2-pentanol
D. 2-methyl-1-pentanol > 3-methyl-2-pentanol > 2-methyl-2-pentanol

83. The most reactive alcohol towards Lucas reagent is:
A. 2-butanol
B. 2-methyl-1-butanol
C. 2-methyl-2-butanol
D. 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol

84. The most readily sulfonated compound is:
A. Benzene
B. Chlorobenzene
C. Nitrobenzene
D. Toluene

85. Select the alkene showing geometrical isomerism:
A. 3-methyl-1-butene
B. Methylcyclopentene
C. 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
D. 3-methyl-2-pentene

86. Trend in ionization energy of Group I elements in increasing order will be:
A. Na<Mg<Al<SiNa < Mg < Al < SiNa<Mg<Al<Si
B. Mg<Na<Al<SiMg < Na < Al < SiMg<Na<Al<Si
C. Si<Al<Mg<NaSi < Al < Mg < NaSi<Al<Mg<Na
D. Al<Si<Na<MgAl < Si < Na < MgAl<Si<Na<Mg

87. When a metal carbonate is heated at 100°C, which of the following compounds will readily decompose?
A. BaCO3BaCO_3BaCO3​
B. MgCO3MgCO_3MgCO3​
C. BeCO3BeCO_3BeCO3​
D. SrCO3SrCO_3SrCO3​

88. At what angle of applied force is work done 50%?
A. 30∘30^\circ30∘
B. 60∘60^\circ60∘
C. 90∘90^\circ90∘
D. 45∘45^\circ45∘

89. What is the power of an electric motor when it performs work of 64×106 J64 \times 10^6 \, J64×106J in 8 seconds?
A. 8 Kilowatts
B. 7 Kilowatts
C. 8 Megawatts
D. 7 Megawatts

90. The relationship between K.E and momentum PPP is given by:
A. K.E=12PMK.E = \frac{1}{2} \frac{P}{M}K.E=21​MP​
B. K.E=12P/M2K.E = \frac{1}{2} P/M^2K.E=21​P/M2
C. K.E=P22MK.E = \frac{P^2}{2M}K.E=2MP2​
D. K.E=P3/MK.E = P^3/MK.E=P3/M

91. When a dolphin leaves the water, it has a lot of kinetic energy. At its highest point, its energy is:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Elastic potential energy
D. Neither kinetic energy nor potential energy

92. The absolute potential energy is given as Ug=−GMm/rU_g = -GMm/rUg​=−GMm/r. The negative sign indicates that Earth’s gravitational field for mass mmm is:
A. Repulsive
B. Less attractive
C. Attractive
D. More repulsive, less attractive

93. The velocity of an object moving in a circle is:
A. Constant
B. Variable
C. Zero
D. Negative

94. If you stop your car quickly by wearing seat belts, the chance of injury is greatly reduced because the seat belt applies:
A. Extra force
B. Perpendicular force
C. Opposite force
D. Zero force

95. A ball with momentum 8 kg·m/s hits a wall and bounces straight back without losing kinetic energy. The change in momentum of the ball is:
A. 4 Ns
B. -16 Ns
C. 16 Ns
D. 8 Ns

Physic

96. In projectile motion, for which angle is maximum height half of its range?
A. 73∘73^\circ73∘
B. 65∘65^\circ65∘
C. 63∘63^\circ63∘
D. 68∘68^\circ68∘

97. Sara goes around a circular track that has a diameter of 20 m. If she runs around the entire track for a distance of 180 m, what is her angular displacement?
A. 16 radians
B. 18 radians
C. 50 radians
D. 8 radians

98. Angle swept by the minute hand in one minute is:
A. 6∘6^\circ6∘
B. 36∘36^\circ36∘
C. 8∘8^\circ8∘
D. 20∘20^\circ20∘

99. To find the direction of angular displacement:
A. Grasp the axis of rotation in the right hand
B. Grasp the axis of rotation in the left hand
C. Put the thumb of the right hand in the direction of circular motion
D. Put the thumb of the left hand in the direction of circular motion

100. A particle moves in a circle of radius 200 cm with a linear speed of 20 m/s. Find the angular velocity:
A. 2 rad/s2 \, \text{rad/s}2rad/s
B. 200 rad/s200 \, \text{rad/s}200rad/s
C. 20 rad/s20 \, \text{rad/s}20rad/s
D. 10 rad/s10 \, \text{rad/s}10rad/s

101. For anti-clockwise rotation, the angular displacement is:
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Null
D. Zero

102. Speed of sound in solid is greater than in air because:
A. (E/ρ)solid<(E/ρ)air(\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{solid}} < (\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{air}}(E/ρ)solid​<(E/ρ)air​
B. (E/ρ)solid>(E/ρ)air(\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{solid}} > (\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{air}}(E/ρ)solid​>(E/ρ)air​
C. (E/ρ)solid=(E/ρ)air(\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{solid}} = (\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{air}}(E/ρ)solid​=(E/ρ)air​
D. (E/ρ)solid<(E/ρ)solid(\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{solid}} < (\text{E}/\rho)_{\text{solid}}(E/ρ)solid​<(E/ρ)solid​

103. A body of mass 10 kg is connected to a spring and oscillates on a horizontal frictionless surface. If the maximum displacement is 20 cm and spring constant is 20 Nm−120 \, \text{Nm}^{-1}20Nm−1, the acceleration of the body is:
A. 2.2 ms−22.2 \, \text{ms}^{-2}2.2ms−2
B. 4 ms−24 \, \text{ms}^{-2}4ms−2
C. 2 ms−22 \, \text{ms}^{-2}2ms−2
D. 0.4 ms−20.4 \, \text{ms}^{-2}0.4ms−2

104. A normal person can hear sound waves ranging from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The maximum wavelength is:
A. 17 m17 \, \text{m}17m
B. 17 mm17 \, \text{mm}17mm
C. 17 cm17 \, \text{cm}17cm
D. 17 km17 \, \text{km}17km

105. NaCl dissolves quickly in water due to:
A. Low dielectric constant
B. High dielectric constant
C. Dielectric constant = 0
D. Dielectric constant = infinity

106. A capacitor can be fully charged because the time required to charge is:
A. 1 time constant
B. 2 time constants
C. 4 time constants
D. Infinity

107. The electric field at a distance of 10 cm from a 24 C24 \, \text{C}24C point charge is:
A. 1.8 C1.8 \, \text{C}1.8C
B. 180 C180 \, \text{C}180C
C. 18 C18 \, \text{C}18C
D. 1800 C1800 \, \text{C}1800C

108. At midpoint PPP:
A. V=0,E≠0V = 0, E \neq 0V=0,E=0
B. V=0,E=0V = 0, E = 0V=0,E=0
C. V≠0,E=0V \neq 0, E = 0V=0,E=0
D. V≠0,E≠0V \neq 0, E \neq 0V=0,E=0

109. A process in which all heat energy is used for increasing the internal energy of the system is known as:
A. Isobaric
B. Isochoric
C. Isothermal
D. Adiabatic

110. In projectile motion, the horizontal range will be maximum when:
A. sin⁡θ=1\sin \theta = 1sinθ=1
B. sin⁡2θ=1\sin^2 \theta = 1sin2θ=1
C. sin⁡2θ=1\sin 2\theta = 1sin2θ=1
D. cos⁡θ=0\cos \theta = 0cosθ=0

111. How many degrees are in 2π2 \pi2π radians?
A. 80∘80^\circ80∘
B. 120∘120^\circ120∘
C. 360∘360^\circ360∘
D. 540∘540^\circ540∘

112. A transformer used to convert 220V to 110V draws a current of 2A at 220V. What is the current in the secondary coil, assuming efficiency?
A. 2A
B. 4A
C. 1A
D. 50A

113. For rectification, the transformer used is:
A. Step-up
B. Step-down
C. High input resistance
D. Low input resistance

114. 1 radian is equal to:
A. 0.01 Gy
B. 0.01 rad
C. 0.01 J/kg
D. 0.01 kg/J

115. 1 Roentgen is equal to:
A. 0.01 J/kg
B. 0.01 Gy
C. 0.01 Rn
D. 0.01 rad

116. A 60 kg man absorbs a lethal whole-body dose of 200 rad with an RBC factor of 10. The energy absorbed is:
A. 10 J
B. 8 J
C. 20 J
D. 12 J

117. Somatic effects cause:
A. Genetic deformation
B. Chromosomal deformation
C. Skin burns
D. Eye burns

118. Each person experiences the background radiation dose in one year:
A. 1 mSv1 \, \text{mSv}1mSv
B. 1 mGy1 \, \text{mGy}1mGy
C. 1 Gy1 \, \text{Gy}1Gy
D. 1 Sv1 \, \text{Sv}1Sv

119. The plane ought to be taking off in a minute. The underlined word is:
A. Linking verb
B. Modal auxiliary
C. Helping verb
D. Finite verb

120. During the heavy rain, the sky grew dark. The underlined verb is:
A. Non-finite
B. Transitive
C. Intransitive
D. Linking

121. His courage brought him honor. The underlined verb is:
A. Intransitive
B. Transitive
C. Complex transitive
D. Linking

122. The teacher assigned the students an assignment to be completed during vacation. The underlined verb is:
A. Non-transitive
B. Di-transitive
C. Complex transitive
D. Intransitive

123. This is the thing we want. The underlined word is:
A. Interjection
B. Relative pronoun
C. Emphasizing pronoun
D. Demonstrative adjective

124. Don’t be in such a hurry. The sentence contains an adjective of:
A. Quality
B. Quantity
C. Number
D. Demonstration

125. If I were a doctor, I would serve humanity. The sentence is an example of:
A. Zero conditional
B. Type I conditional
C. Type II conditional
D. Type III conditional

126. Choose the sentence which is correctly structured:
A. If we had found him sooner, we would save him.
B. If we find him sooner, we would have saved him.
C. If we had found him sooner, we would have saved him.
D. If we had found him sooner, we will save him.

127. Fill in the blank with the correct tense: He _____ home from work regularly since he joined his office.
A. is coming
B. comes
C. has been coming
D. came

128. All cells would lack something essential if their nucleus were removed. The sentence is written in:
A. Past indefinite
B. Present perfect
C. Present continuous
D. Subjunctive tense

129. Choose the correctly structured sentence:
A. Had he found her number, we would have called her.
B. If he finds her number, we would call her.
C. If he found her number, we call her.
D. If he had found her number, we will call her.

130. Choose the correct form of conditional sentence:
A. If I had money, I will buy a car.
B. If I have money, I would buy a car.
C. If I had money, I would buy a car.
D. If I have money, I will bought a car.

131. One rem is equal to:
A. 0.01 Gy0.01 \, \text{Gy}0.01Gy
B. 0.01 Sv0.01 \, \text{Sv}0.01Sv
C. 0.001 RAC0.001 \, \text{RAC}0.001RAC
D. 0.01 RAC0.01 \, \text{RAC}0.01RAC

132. One rad is equal to:
A. 0.01 J/kg0.01 \, \text{J/kg}0.01J/kg
B. 0.01 Gy0.01 \, \text{Gy}0.01Gy
C. 0.01 RAC0.01 \, \text{RAC}0.01RAC
D. 0.001 Gy0.001 \, \text{Gy}0.001Gy

133. A 60 kg man absorbs a lethal whole-body equivalent dose of 200 rem with an RBC factor of 10. The energy absorbed is:
A. 10 J
B. 8 J
C. 12 J
D. 20 J

134. Somatic effects cause:
A. Genetic deformation
B. Chromosomal deformation
C. Skin burns
D. Eye burns

135. Each person experiences the background radiation dose in one year:
A. 1 mSv
B. 1 mGy
C. 1 Gy
D. 1 Sv

English

136. Choose the sentence with the correct use of auxiliary verb:
A. She must studies hard to pass.
B. She must study hard to pass.
C. She must studying hard to pass.
D. She must to study hard to pass.

137. Identify the tense used in this sentence: He has been working here for the past five years.
A. Past continuous
B. Present perfect continuous
C. Present continuous
D. Past perfect continuous

138. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
A. The teacher said, “Work hard if you want to succeed.”
B. The teacher said “Work hard if you want to succeed.”
C. The teacher said, work hard if you want to succeed.
D. The teacher said: Work hard if you want to succeed.

139. Fill in the blank with the correct option: The plane ______ by the time we reached the airport.
A. had taken off
B. has taken off
C. will have taken off
D. is taking off

140. Choose the correct sentence:
A. Each of the students have done their homework.
B. Each of the students has done their homework.
C. Each of the students have done his homework.
D. Each of the students has done her homework.

141. Select the option with the correct degree of comparison:
A. She is the most intelligent of all the girls.
B. She is intelligent of all the girls.
C. She is more intelligent of all the girls.
D. She is intelligent than all the girls.

142. Complete the sentence: If I ________ the president, I would abolish taxes.
A. was
B. were
C. am
D. be

143. Identify the error in the sentence: Neither he nor his friends is coming to the party.
A. Error in subject-verb agreement
B. Error in preposition
C. No error
D. Error in conjunction

144. Fill in the blank with the correct verb: He ________ to the same gym every morning.
A. go
B. goes
C. going
D. gone

145. Choose the correctly structured sentence:
A. I will meet you when I will finish my work.
B. I will meet you when I finish my work.
C. I will meet you when I am finishing my work.
D. I will meet you when I was finishing my work.

146. Which of the following is the best example of a complex sentence?
A. I love reading books and listening to music.
B. While I was reading, the phone rang.
C. The sun is shining, and the birds are singing.
D. She is singing and dancing.

147. Choose the correct form of reported speech: She said, “I am going to the market.”
A. She said that she is going to the market.
B. She said that she was going to the market.
C. She said that I am going to the market.
D. She said that I was going to the market.

148. Complete the sentence with the appropriate article: He is _______ honest man.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. none

NUMS MDCAT Answer Key 2024

1. A	2. C	3. D	4. B
5. A	6. C	7. D	8. B
9. D	10. B	11. C	12. A
13. D	14. C	15. D	16. A
17. C	18. A	19. A	20. C
21. A	22. D	23. B	24. C
25. C	26. C	27. A	28. D
29. B	30. A	31. D	32. C
33. B	34. D	35. B	36. C
37. D	38. A	39. C	40. D
41. C	42. B	43. D	44. C
45. B	46. B	47. C	48. D
49. C	50. A	51. B	52. D
53. B	54. A	55. D	56. B
57. C	58. B	59. D	60. A
61. C	62. B	63. C	64. D
65. B	66. C	67. A	68. C
69. D	70. B	71. A	72. C
73. A	74. B	75. C	76. A
77. D	78. C	79. B	80. A
81. A	82. D	83. C	84. D
85. C	86. B	87. D	88. B
89. A	90. D	91. A	92. C
93. B	94. A	95. C	96. D
97. A	98. B	99. D	100. A
101. C	102. B	103. C	104. D
105. B	106. A	107. C	108. D
109. A	110. C	111. D	112. B
113. D	114. B	115. C	116. D
117. A	118. B	119. C	120. D
121. A	122. B	123. C	124. A
125. D	126. B	127. C	128. A
129. B	130. C	131. D	132. A
133. D	134. B	135. C	136. B
137. B	138. A	139. C	140. B
141. D	142. B	143. A	144. C
145. B	146. A	147. C	148. D