KMU MDCAT Past Papers 2024-Code A

KMU MDCAT Past Papers 2024 with 200 MCQS , This Paper consist of Biology , Chemistry , Physic , English and Logical Reasoning Questions.

Biology

1. The genetic code of _____ is bound by a lipid membrane.
   • a. Enterovirus
   • b. Flu virus
   • c. Hepatitis A virus
   • d. Polio virus
2. Viruses can NOT ______.
   • a. Crystallize
   • b. Excrete
   • c. Infect bacteria
   • d. Mutate
3. Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV virus located?
   • a. In the protein spikes
   • b. Surrounding the viral core
   • c. Inside the capsid
   • d. Outside the capsid
4. The process of ATP synthesis through a combination of electrochemical and osmotic events is known as:
   • a. Fermentation
   • b. Glycolysis
   • c. Oxidative phosphorylation
   • d. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
5. Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:
   • a. 2
   • b. 4
   • c. 6
   • d. 8
6. Sugarcane contains _________.
   • a. Fructose
   • b. Glucose
   • c. Ribose
   • d. Sucrose
7. Sickle cell anaemia results from?
   • a. Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
   • b. Linkage between the polypeptide chains
   • c. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule
   • d. Viral infections of RNA viruses
8. Which is INCORRECT about the globular proteins?
   • a. Abundantly found in hair
   • b. Are spherical in shape
   • c. Have polypeptide chains
   • d. Soluble in water
9. What is the ester of fatty acids and long chain alcohol called?
   • a. Acylglycerol
   • b. Glycerol
   • c. Phospholipid
   • d. Wax
10. Lipids, which do not contain fatty acids, are:
    • a. Neutral lipids
    • b. Phosphatidic acids
    • c. Steroids
    • d. Waxes
11. The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to:
    • a. Amoeba
    • b. Bacteria
    • c. Protozoa
    • d. Virus
12. Where are spindle fibres attached on a chromosome during cell division?
    • a. Centromere
    • b. Histone proteins
    • c. Nucleolus
    • d. Telomere
13. Which organelle contributes towards steroid production?
    • a. Endoplasmic Reticulum
    • b. Golgi apparatus
    • c. Lysosome
    • d. Ribosomes
14. The lysosomes found in eukaryotes contain:
    • a. Hydrolytic enzymes
    • b. Meiotic enzymes
    • c. Oxidative enzymes
    • d. Mitotic enzymes
15. Plasma membrane is differentially permeable due to the presence of?
    • a. Carbohydrates
    • b. Lipids
    • c. Proteins
    • d. Vitamins
16. The following function/activity is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system:
    • a. Cardiac muscle contraction
    • b. Salivation
    • c. Smooth muscle contraction
    • d. Thoughts and emotions
17. A motor neuron:
    • a. Carries impulse from effectors to CNS
    • b. Carries impulse from receptors to CNS
    • c. Carries impulse from CNS to muscles
    • d. Connects sensory nerves to ganglions
18. Diffusion of ____________ across the post-synaptic membrane causes it to depolarize:
    • a. Calcium ions
    • b. Chloride ions
    • c. Potassium ions
    • d. Sodium ions
19. A reflex action does not involve the:
    • a. Brain
    • b. Motor neuron
    • c. Sensory neuron
    • d. Spinal cord
20. What happens to the enzyme after an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
    • a. Reduced to inactive form
    • b. Becomes inert
    • c. Changes into substrate
    • d. Used for another reaction
21. Catalase can be activated at pH:
    • a. 1
    • b. 3
    • c. 5
    • d. 7
22. Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by?
    • a. Heavy metal ions
    • b. Methane
    • c. Mutase
    • d. Noble gases
23. A competitive inhibitor:
    • a. Accelerates the chemical reaction
    • b. Competes with the enzyme
    • c. Is irreversible
    • d. Is reversible
24. Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide evidence of:
    • a. Convergent evolution
    • b. Divergent evolution
    • c. No evolution
    • d. Same origin

25. The embryological stages of _______ show similarity in anatomical features.

• a. All living things
• b. All non-vertebrates
• c. All vertebrates
• d. Human, jellyfish, and mouse

26. Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?

• a. Amylase
• b. Lipase
• c. Peptidase
• d. Protease

27. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?

• a. Cholecystokinin
• b. Gastrin
• c. Insulin
• d. Secretin

28. In an inflammatory response, bradykinin causes?

• a. Activation of natural killer cells
• b. Blockage in blood vessels
• c. Constriction of blood vessels
• d. Leakage of fluid from blood vessels

29. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

• a. Antibodies from mother’s milk
• b. Previous chickenpox infection
• c. Inactivated polio vaccine
• d. Live polio vaccine

30. Bacteria that lack flagella are called:

• a. Amphitrichous
• b. Atrichous
• c. Lophotrichous
• d. Peritrichous

31. Antibiotics can be used against:

• a. Herpes simplex
• b. Influenza
• c. Polio
• d. Salmonella typhi

32. The _______ in semen facilitate the transport of sperms.

• a. Androgen
• b. Prostaglandins
• c. Oxytocin
• d. Testosterone

33. The acidity of urine is neutralized by?

• a. Cowper’s gland
• b. Prostate gland
• c. Seminal vesicle
• d. Vas deferens

34. The corpus luteum is essentially formed from:

• a. Graafian follicle
• b. Ovum
• c. Oogonium
• d. Oocyte

35. The outer layer of the uterus is called:

• a. Endometrium
• b. Myometrium
• c. Mesometrium
• d. Perimetrium

36. ___________ is spread through sexual contact.

• a. Gonorrhoea
• b. Influenza
• c. Tuberculosis
• d. Typhoid

37. The cells contained in the lacunae of the bone are called:

• a. Chondrocytes
• b. Osteoblasts
• c. Osteocytes
• d. Osteoclasts

38. The ____ surrounds the muscle fibre of the skeletal muscle.

• a. Cytoplasm
• b. Lacunae
• c. Myofibrils
• d. Sarcoplasm

39. What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction?

• a. Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
• b. Released from the myosin head
• c. Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
• d. Exchanged for sodium ions

40. Which of the following blood groups has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum?

• a. A
• b. AB
• c. B
• d. O

41. What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I?

• a. Chromosomes duplicate without any exchange of parts
• b. Homologous chromosomes exchange different parts, leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation
• c. Homologous chromosomes exchange identical parts, resulting in no genetic variation
• d. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts

42. The genetic makeup that your parents have transferred to you for your hair color makes up your:

• a. Genotype
• b. Karyotype
• c. Phenotype
• d. None of the above

43. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant’s supply of:

• a. Carbohydrates
• b. Lipids
• c. Nitrites
• d. Water

44. Which is true for an X-linked dominant trait?

• a. All female offspring of the affected father will be affected
• b. Half of the female offspring of the affected father will be affected
• c. No male offspring of an affected mother will be affected
• d. No female offspring of the affected father will be affected

45. Malpighian tubules are found in:

• a. Earthworm
• b. Grasshopper
• c. Leech
• d. Slug

46. Shark belongs to class:

• a. Chondrichthyes
• b. Echinodermata
• c. Osteichthyes
• d. Urochordata

47. Canal system is a characteristic of?

• a. Cnidarians
• b. Protozoans
• c. Porifera
• d. Segmented worms

48. Mantle is the feature of?

• a. Annelids
• b. Chordates
• c. Echinoderms
• d. Mussels

49. The production of energy is____________.

• a. Faster in anaerobic respiration
• b. Faster in aerobic respiration
• c. Same in both types of respiration
• d. Not associated with respiration

50. The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by micro-organisms, is called:

• a. Lactic acid fermentation
• b. Alcoholic fermentation
• c. Cellular respiration
• d. None of the above

51. Chromosome is typically made up from a combination of:

• a. DNA and protein
• b. DNA and RNA
• c. RNA and lipids
• d. RNA and proteins

52. Which cytoplasmic organelle makes their own proteins?

• a. Chromosomes
• b. Golgi apparatus
• c. Mitochondria
• d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

53. The active mass movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due to:

• a. Cyclosis
• b. Endoplasmic streaming movements
• c. Golgi apparatus
• d. Transfer RNA

54. Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance?

• a. Amygdala
• b. Cerebellum
• c. Hippocampus
• d. Medulla Oblongata

55. The neurotransmitter _______ is hydrolysed by monoamine oxidase:

• a. Acetylcholine
• b. Adrenaline
• c. Glutamate
• d. Serotonin

56. Most of the neurons in the CNS are:

• a. Bipolar
• b. Multipolar
• c. Pseudounipolar
• d. Unipolar

57. The enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by:

• a. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate
• b. Increasing the activation energy
• c. Increasing the substrate concentration
• d. Lowering the activation energy

58. According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is:

• a. Inheritance of acquired characteristics
• b. Mutation
• c. Natural selection
• d. Survival of the fittest

59. What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?

• a. Analogous to the fin of living fish
• b. Fossil structure from an extinct ancestor
• c. Homologous structure of the wings of a bat
• d. Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor

60. Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall?

• a. Chief cells secrete gastrin
• b. Hormone cells secrete intrinsic factor
• c. Mucus cells secrete mucin
• d. Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen

61. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

• a. Free radicals
• b. Hydrogen peroxide
• c. Interferons
• d. Oxygen

62. Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in streptococci?

• a. Carry fewer genes than the chromosome
• b. Replicate autonomously from the chromosome
• c. They are considered as genetic element
• d. The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication

63. Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?

• a. Both gram-negative and positive bacteria
• b. Gram-negative
• c. Gram-positive
• d. Mycobacteria

64. _________ is used in the production of Humulin.

• a. Bacteria
• b. Fungi
• c. Protozoa
• d. Virus

65. Which of the following does NOT relate to smooth muscles?

• a. Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
• b. Have spindle-shaped cells
• c. Line the wall of the heart
• d. Lack striations

66. Which term best describes an organism’s physical characteristics?

• a. Allele
• b. Genetic code
• c. Genotype
• d. Trait

67. What will happen with the addition of salt to water?

• a. Water potential will increase
• b. Water potential will remain same
• c. Osmotic potential will increase
• d. Osmotic potential will remain same

68. Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?

• a. Contain DNA
• b. Can replicate on their own
• c. Can infect bacteria
• d. They have a sub-cellular structure

CHEMISTRY

69. How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)?

• a. 2
• b. 4
• c. 6
• d. 8

70. Heating 24.8g of copper carbonate (CuCO3) in a crucible produced only 13.9g of copper oxide (CuO). What is the percentage yield of copper oxide?

• a. 81.79%
• b. 83.98%
• c. 86.87%
• d. 89.68%

71. Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating:

• a. Actual yield
• b. Theoretical yield
• c. Percentage yield
• d. Amount of the reactant unused

72. Actual yield will reach the ideal (theoretical) value if the % yield of the reaction is:

• a. 10%
• b. 50%
• c. 90%
• d. 100%

73. Which of the following sub-shell does not exist?

• a. 1p
• b. 1s
• c. 5d
• d. 6f

74. The splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is:

• a. Aufbau principle
• b. Pauli exclusion principle
• c. Stark effect
• d. Zeeman effect

75. Which element has the electronic configuration of noble-gas notation [Kr], 5s2, 4d2?

• a. Mo
• b. Se
• c. Sr
• d. Zr

76. Total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of central atom in water are:

• a. 2
• b. 3
• c. 4
• d. 5

77. What is the mass of 1 mole of calcium carbonate (CaCO3)?

• a. 50g
• b. 75g
• c. 100g
• d. 125g

78. Which one of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure?

• a. C2H4
• b. CH4
• c. H2O
• d. NH3

79. Which one of the following molecules has a zero-dipole moment?

• a. BF3
• b. NF3
• c. NH3
• d. H2O

80. The unhybridized p orbital in sp2 hybridization is:

• a. In the same plane
• b. Out of the plane
• c. Parallel to sp2 orbitals
• d. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals

81. 760 torr is equal to ___ Pascal.

• a. 1
• b. 76
• c. 760
• d. 101325

82. How many grams of CO2 can be produced by thermally decomposing 10 moles of ZnCO3(S)?

• a. 320
• b. 360
• c. 400
• d. 440

83. Molar heat of vaporization of water is:

• a. 40.7 cal/mol
• b. 40.7 J/mol
• c. 40.7 kcal/mol
• d. 40.7 kJ/mol

84. Distillation under very reduced pressure is ____ distillation.

• a. Destructive
• b. Fractional
• c. Steam
• d. Vacuum

85. The example of metallic solid is:

• a. B
• b. C
• c. Cu
• d. Si

86. When a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, this property is:

• a. Allotropy
• b. Anisotropy
• c. Isomorphism
• d. Polymorphism

87. Forward reaction is the one that:

• a. Is very slow at the beginning of the reaction
• b. Reacts to form reactants
• c. Speeds up gradually and at equilibrium its rate becomes constant
• d. Takes place from left to right as given in chemical equation

88. How many moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5g of HCl, according to the neutralization reaction?

• HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(I)
• a. 0.252
• b. 0.452
• c. 0.652
• d. 0.852

89. In the production of SO3 from SO2 and Oxygen, the yield of SO3 is increased by:

• a. Adding a catalyst
• b. Adding more SO2
• c. Increasing temperature
• d. Removing oxygen

90. Consider N2 + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ΔH = -92.46kJ/mol. The optimum temperature (oC) to produce ammonia is:

• a. 0
• b. 450
• c. 5000
• d. Constant temperature

91. The unit of KC for the system PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2 is:

• a. dm3/mol
• b. mol/dm3
• c. mol/dm6
• d. mol2/dm6

92. For a first order reaction A → B, the rate constant is 0.0458 s⁻¹. Calculate rate of the reaction if the concentration of reactant is 0.35 mol dm⁻³.

• a. 0.012 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
• b. 0.014 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
• c. 0.016 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
• d. 0.018 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹

93. A reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B, the rate equation is:

• a. Rate = k [A]
• b. Rate = k [A][B]
• c. Rate = k [A]²[B]
• d. Rate = k [A][B]²

94. What mass of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) is produced from 18.5g of Al metal, when it reacts completely with oxygen gas according to the equation:

• 4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s)
• a. 30.8g
• b. 32.6g
• c. 34.9g
• d. 36.5g

95. Calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal gas expands from 15 dm³ to 20 dm³ against a constant external pressure of 2 atmospheres.

• a. -10 atm.dm³
• b. -5 atm.dm³
• c. 5 atm.dm³
• d. 10 atm.dm³

96. When 1 mole of ice melts at 0°C and constant pressure of 1 atmosphere, 6025 J of heat is absorbed by the system. The molar volume of ice and water are 0.020 and 0.018 dm³, respectively. Calculate ΔE. (1 dm³.atm = 101.33 J)

• a. 6010.20 J
• b. 6015.20 J
• c. 6020.20 J
• d. 6025.20 J

97. One slice of bread with a tablespoon of peanut butter on it contains 20g carbohydrate, 10g protein, and 9g fat. Calculate total energy consumed in this intake.

• a. 158 kcal
• b. 173 kcal
• c. 201 kcal
• d. 218 kcal

98. ΔH can be measured indirectly by applying:

• a. Avogadro’s law
• b. Faraday’s law
• c. Gas’s law
• d. Hess’s law

99. The heat of sublimation of potassium is 98 kJ/mol, the heat of dissociation of bromine gas is 192.5 kJ/mol. The ionization energy of K is 414 kJ/mol. The electron affinity of Br is -334.7 kJ/mol and the heat of formation of KBr is -405.8 kJ/mol. Calculate the lattice energy of KBr.

• a. -679.3
• b. -669.5
• c. 679.3
• d. 669.5

100. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution?

• a. Acetic acid
• b. Ammonium hydroxide
• c. Carbonic acid
• d. Potassium iodide

101. When 4g of magnesium was heated in excess of oxygen. Calculate the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide (MgO).

• a. 3.7g
• b. 4.2g
• c. 5.4g
• d. 6.6g

102. The electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode is chosen as:

• a. -1 V
• b. 0 V
• c. 1 V
• d. 2 V

103. Electronegativity of Al is approximately equal to that of:

• a. B
• b. Be
• c. Mg
• d. Na

104. Which of the following alkali metal forms only normal oxide with O₂?

• a. K
• b. Li
• c. Na
• d. Rb

105. Third period element that initially reacts rapidly with oxygen to form a protective oxide coating that prevents further reactions is:

• a. Al
• b. Mg
• c. Na
• d. Si

106. Cu²⁺ salt solution is blue in colour due to transition of electrons from:

• a. d to d orbital
• b. p to d orbital
• c. p to p orbital
• d. s to p orbital

107. Potassium ferrocyanide is which type of salt?

• a. Complex
• b. Double
• c. Mixed
• d. Normal

108. Name of ketone functional group is:

• a. Amino
• b. Carbonyl
• c. Carboxyl
• d. Formyl

109. Pyridine belongs to which class of organic compounds?

• a. Alicyclic
• b. Heterocyclic
• c. Homocyclic
• d. Hydrocarbon

110. Which of the following elements cannot be detected directly in a given organic compound?

• a. Chlorine
• b. Nitrogen
• c. Oxygen
• d. Phosphorous

111. The homolytic fission of C-H bond in an alkane results in:

• a. Alkyl free radical
• b. Carbanion
• c. Carbocation
• d. Methylpropane

112. Addition of HBr to isobutylene mainly gives:

• a. Isobutyl bromide
• b. n-butyl bromide
• c. sec-butyl bromide
• d. tert-butyl bromide

113. Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide is carried out in the presence of:

• a. Alcoholic KOH
• b. Aqueous KOH
• c. Conc. H₂SO₄
• d. Zn dust

114. The pKᵦ of n-propyl amine is:

• a. 3.24
• b. 3.28
• c. 3.32
• d. 3.35

115. The carbon atom carrying positive charge and attached to three other atoms or groups is called:

• a. Carbanion
• b. Carbene
• c. Carbocation
• d. Oxonium

116. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

• a. Ethyl alcohol
• b. Isopropyl alcohol
• c. n-propyl alcohol
• d. tert-butyl alcohol

117. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium produces:

• a. Aldehyde
• b. Alkoxide
• c. Ethane
• d. Ethene

118. Oxidation of secondary alcohol gives:

• a. Carboxylic acid
• b. Ether
• c. Ketone
• d. Phenol

119. Which aldehyde is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition?

• a. Acetaldehyde
• b. Butyraldehyde
• c. Formaldehyde
• d. Propionaldehyde

120. Acetic acid can be prepared by the hydrolysis of:

• a. Ethanal
• b. Ethanol
• c. Methanoic acid
• d. Methyl cyanide

121. Protein present in haemoglobin has _______ structure.

• a. Primary
• b. Secondary
• c. Tertiary
• d. Quaternary

122. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor:

• a. Binds with substrate
• b. Competes with enzyme
• c. Competes with substrate
• d. Irreversibly binds with enzyme

PHYSICS

123. A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path?

• a. The car’s inertia resisting any change in direction
• b. The car’s mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle
• c. The engine’s power pushing the car forward
• d. The friction between the tyres and the road

124. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its SI unit?

• a. Energy – Newton
• b. Force – Joule
• c. Power – Watt
• d. Velocity – m/s²

125. _______ is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with constant velocity.

• a. Friction
• b. Inertia
• c. Mass
• d. Weight

126. A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved?

• a. Kinetic energy alone
• b. Momentum alone
• c. Momentum and kinetic energy both
• d. Neither kinetic energy nor momentum

127. The vertical and horizontal components of the projectile motion are:

• a. Correlated with each other
• b. Dependent on each other
• c. Independent of each other
• d. Associated with each other

128. A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a 10m high cliff with an initial speed of 15m/s. After 2 seconds, which of the following statement describes the ball’s horizontal and vertical components?

• a. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards
• b. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 15m/s downwards
• c. The horizontal velocity is 30m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards
• d. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 0m/s

129. How does an angle between the force applied and the direction of motion influence the work done on an object?

• a. Work is constant regardless of the angle
• b. Work is maximum when the angle is 0°
• c. Work is negative when the angle is 90°
• d. Work is 0 when the angle is 45°

130. A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by the patient’s weight?

• a. Half of the work
• b. Maximum work
• c. Minimum work
• d. No work

131. If a constant force of 10N is applied to move an object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done?

• a. 2 J
• b. 5 J
• c. 15 J
• d. 50 J

132. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

• a. Angle on which it is thrown
• b. Both mass of the body and the angle at which it is thrown
• c. Mass of earth
• d. Mass of the body

133. A wheel makes 3 complete revolutions. What is the total number of radians through which a point on the wheel has rotated?

• a. 2π
• b. 3π
• c. 6π
• d. 9π

134. For a rigid body that rotates about a fixed axis, the angle swept out by a line passing through any point on the body and intersecting the axis of rotation perpendicularly is called?

• a. Angular acceleration
• b. Angular displacement
• c. Angular momentum
• d. Angular velocity

135. In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do?

• a. Has no effect inside the spaceship
• b. Increases spaceship’s rotation
• c. Pulls objects towards the centre
• d. Pushes the objects towards the outer wall

136. When the mass of a body moving along a circle becomes half and radius becomes double, and vvv is constant, the centripetal force becomes?

• a. Double
• b. Half
• c. One-fourth
• d. Remains Same

137. What happens when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase?

• a. They cancel each other out resulting in a destructive interference
• b. They combine to form a wave double the amplitude, resulting in constructive interference
• c. They produce a wave with zero amplitude
• d. They produce a wave with the same amplitude as the individual waves

138. Which type of waves can be polarized?

• a. Longitudinal waves
• b. Mechanical waves
• c. Sound waves
• d. Transverse waves

139. For longitudinal waves:

• a. The particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the wave’s propagation
• b. The particles of the medium remain stationary as the wave passes through
• c. The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave’s propagation
• d. Their velocity is enhanced when they travel through vacuum

140. According to the principle of superimposition, when 2 or more waves overlap at a point in space, the amplitude of the resultant wave at that point is:

• a. Always zero
• b. The product of the individual wave amplitude
• c. The product of the frequencies of the individual waves
• d. The sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves

141. The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gas is NOT dependent on:

• a. Density
• b. Moisture
• c. Pressure
• d. Temperature

142. A tuning fork having angular frequency equal to 440Hz produces sound waves which travel with the speed of 340 m/s. What is the separation between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of the sound waves?

• a. 0.57 m
• b. 0.67 m
• c. 0.77 m
• d. 0.87 m

143. A police car, with its siren on, is moving towards a stationary listener. How does the stationary listener receive the frequency of the sound emitted by the siren? It:

• a. Decreases
• b. Increases
• c. Stays the same
• d. Varies randomly

144. In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases?

• a. The temperature decreases
• b. The temperature increases
• c. The temperature remains constant
• d. The temperature first increases then decreases

145. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following statement is true?

• a. Pressure and temperature of the gas increase
• b. The internal energy of the gas increases
• c. The temperature of the gas remains constant
• d. The work done by the gas is zero

146. Consider an ideal gas confined to the cylinder with a fixed piston. On heating the gas, all the heat supplied increases:

• a. Kinetic energy of the molecules
• b. Potential Energy of the molecules
• c. The intermolecular forces between gas molecules
• d. The number of gas molecules

147. What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent?

• a. Becomes four times
• b. Doubles
• c. Increases by half
• d. Triples

148. According to Coulomb’s law, what happens to the electrostatic force between the 2-point charges if the distance between them is doubled?

• a. The force becomes one-fourth
• b. The force becomes half
• c. The force doubles
• d. The force remains the same

149. What does one Coulomb represent in terms of charge?

• a. The amount of charge transported by a current of one Ampere in one second
• b. The charge of one proton
• c. The charge of one electron
• d. The charge required to create a force of 1 Newton between two charges separated by 1 meter

150. Two point charges, +5µC and -5µC, are placed at points A and B, respectively, which are separated by a distance 2d. What is the electric potential at the midpoint M of the line joining A and B?

• a. 2kQ/d
• b. kQ/d
• c. -kQ/d
• d. zero

151. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance:

• a. Increases four times
• b. Increases six times
• c. Is doubled
• d. Remains the same

152. If the dielectric material between the plates of the capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?

• a. The electric field becomes zero
• b. The electric field decreases
• c. The electric field increases
• d. The electric field remains the same

153. Capacitance of a capacitor increases with a decrease in:

• a. Dielectric constant
• b. Plate area
• c. Permittivity
• d. Plate separation

154. The I-V Graph for a non-Ohmic material is always:

• a. Curved
• b. Horizontal
• c. Linear
• d. Perpendicular

155. Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per ___?

• a. Degree rise in temperature
• b. Unit increase in electric current
• c. Unit decrease in capacitance
• d. Degree drop in temperature

156. For metals, the temperature coefficient of resistance is:

• a. Infinity
• b. Negative
• c. Positive
• d. Zero

157. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 100-Watt bulb and 200-Watt bulb designed to operate on the same voltage, then power of:

• a. R1 is two times R2
• b. R2 is two times R1
• c. R2 is four times R1
• d. R1 is four times R2

158. The maximum power transfer theorem states that maximum power is delivered to the load when:

• a. The load resistance is half of the source resistance
• b. The load resistance is zero
• c. The load resistance is double the source resistance
• d. The load resistance is equal to the source resistance

159. Electron Volt (eV) is another unit of:

• a. Charge
• b. Current
• c. Energy
• d. Power

160. An electron is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, which of the following is correct statement about electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• a. Force acting is equal to electron charge
• b. Force acting is equal to the magnetic field strength
• c. Force acting is maximum
• d. Zero force is acting on it

161. For a positively charged particle (q) moving with a velocity (v) in a magnetic field of flux density B, the force (F) acting on the charged particle is given by the expression:

• a. q = Fv × B
• b. F = qv × B
• c. F = v × B/q
• d. q = v × B/F

162. Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

• a. It is along the axis of the coil
• b. It is circular around the wires
• c. It is strongest at the ends of the solenoid
• d. It is zero when current flows through it

163. One-meter-long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla. What is the value of induced emf?

• a. 12 V
• b. 19.4 V
• c. 20.6 V
• d. 25 V

164. The inductance of a coil depends on:

• a. Number of turns
• b. Resistance of the wire used
• c. Type of insulation used on the wire
• d. Voltage applied to the coil

165. The direction of induced current is determined by:

• a. Ampere’s law
• b. Faraday’s law
• c. Lenz’s law
• d. Ohm’s law

166. Lenz’s law is consistent with the:

• a. Ampere’s Law
• b. Faraday’s law
• c. Law of conservation of energy
• d. Ohm’s Law

167. The basic principle behind the operation of the transformer is:

• a. Coulomb’s law
• b. Electromagnetic induction
• c. Gas’s Law
• d. Hess’s law

168. When the PN junction is reverse-biased, its reverse current is of the order of:

• a. Gigaamperes
• b. Kiloamperes
• c. Megaamperes
• d. Microamperes

169. The momentum of moving photon is:

• a. mc²
• b. λ / h
• c. h / λ
• d. zero

170. At every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body:

• a. Decreases
• b. Increases two times
• c. Increases four times
• d. Remains constant

171. As per the second photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is:

• a. Below the threshold frequency
• b. Equals the threshold frequency
• c. Three times the threshold frequency
• d. Twice the threshold frequency

172. If an electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from second to first orbit, the emitted radiation has a wavelength of:

• a. 4/3 RH
• b. 3/4 RH
• c. RH
• d. 4 RH

173. Black body is an ideal radiator that radiates ____________ at all wavelengths.

• a. Inconsistently
• b. Distinctly
• c. Equally
• d. Unequally

174. Mass number A refers to:

• a. Number of electrons
• b. Number of nucleons
• c. Number of neutrons
• d. Number of protons

175. λ is a ____________ constant:

• a. Decay
• b. Dielectric
• c. Planck’s
• d. Proportionality

176. Gamma ray camera can observe radiations from the ___________ that are concentrated in the organs.

• a. Atoms
• b. Isotopes
• c. Nucleons
• d. Neutrons

English

177. A person who sells goods and services is a ______.

• a. Consumer
• b. Purchaser
• c. Patron
• d. Vendor

178. The detective noticed a subtle change in the suspect’s tone when he asked about her whereabouts on the night of the crime, which hinted at something more significant. What does “subtle” most likely mean?

• a. Dramatic
• b. Notable
• c. Obvious
• d. Slight

179. Despite the complicated situation, she remained ________, calmly assessing her options before deciding.

• a. Composed
• b. Erratic
• c. Frantic
• d. Hysterical

180. Find out the synonym for “Elated.”

• a. Confused
• b. Disappointed
• c. Nervous
• d. Overjoyed

181. Choose the sentence with the correct tense and sentence structure:

• a. He is going to the market yesterday.
• b. I had been waiting for the bus, and it arrives.
• c. She will finish her homework before she went to bed.
• d. They were playing football when it started to rain.

182. Choose the correct sentence.

• a. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• b. My father is talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
• c. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fell from the bicycle.
• d. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I am falling from the bicycle.

183. Choose the correct sentence:

• a. She didn’t knew about the surprise party.
• b. She hasn’t knew about the surprise party.
• c. She didn’t know about the surprise party.
• d. She doesn’t knew about the surprise party.

184. After she ______ the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion.

• a. Has climbed
• b. Have climbed
• c. Had climbed
• d. Was climbing

185. Punctuate the given sentence correctly: The teacher asked did you complete your homework.

• a. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework?
• b. The teacher asked, “Did you complete your homework?”
• c. The teacher asked, “did you complete your homework”.
• d. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework.

186. Punctuate the following sentence correctly: Lets meet at Sarahs house after school.

• a. Let’s meet at Sarah’s house after school.
• b. Let’s meet at Sarahs’ house after school.
• c. Lets meet at Sarah’s house after school.
• d. Let’s meet, at Sarah’s house after school.

187. Do you usually take a bus ____________ the market?

• a. By
• b. For
• c. Of
• d. To

188. He has been working ______ this project for two weeks.

• a. At
• b. By
• c. To
• d. On

189. Identify the sentence that contains an ERROR in word order, style, or vocabulary:

• a. He has a talent for solving complex problems.
• b. She enjoys reading, writing, and to paint.
• c. The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.
• d. They quickly adapted to the new environment.

190. Identify the ERROR in the sentence: The chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal.

• a. Punctuation
• b. Style
• c. Vocabulary
• d. Word order

191. Order is the law of civilization as chaos is the law of the ______.

• a. City
• b. Metropolis
• c. Universe
• d. Wilderness

192. Blueprint is to architect as algorithm is to _______.

• a. Designer
• b. Engineer
• c. Physician
• d. Programmer

193. “Regular exercise has been shown to improve overall health by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, such as heart disease and diabetes. Additionally, exercise enhances mental well-being by reducing stress, anxiety, and depression. Despite these benefits, many people find it challenging to maintain a consistent exercise routine due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation.”
     Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements can be inferred?

• a. Busy schedules and lack of motivation are barriers to regular exercise.
• b. Chronic diseases cannot be prevented by regular exercise.
• c. Exercise is only beneficial for physical health, not mental health.
• d. People who exercise regularly never experience stress or anxiety.

194. Which of the following words is a synonym for “meticulous”?

• a. Abhorrent
• b. Heedless
• c. Incautious
• d. Precise

LOGICAL REASONING

195. Find out the missing term in the sequence: 15, 14, 12, 9?

• a. 5
• b. 6
• c. 7
• d. 8

196. All omnivores are herbivores. No herbivores are carnivores. Some carnivores are humans. Which of the following conclusions are TRUE?
     CONCLUSIONS:
     I. Some humans are carnivores.
     II. No carnivores are omnivores.
     III. Some omnivores are carnivores.

• a. I and II
• b. I and III
• c. II and III
• d. III

197. Read the following statements and identify the best cause-and-effect relation:

Statements:
i. Sara’s productivity at work has significantly decreased over the past month.
ii. Sara has been experiencing frequent interruptions due to ongoing construction work near her office.

• a. Sara’s decreased productivity is causing the construction work.
• b. The ongoing construction work is causing Sara’s decreased productivity.
• c. Sara’s productivity was already decreasing before the construction work began.
• d. The construction work is unrelated to Sara’s productivity.

198. A store offers a 10% discount on all items. After applying the discount, the price of an item is Rs. 450. What was the original price of the item?

• a. Rs. 490
• b. Rs. 495
• c. Rs. 500
• d. Rs. 505

199. I went 10m to the East from my house, then turned north and walked another 15m, and then I turned west and covered 12m, and then turned south and covered 15m. How far am I from my house?

• a. 0 m
• b. 1 m
• c. 2 m
• d. 3 m

200. If a > b, b > c, and d > a then?

• a. b < d
• b. a < c
• c. b > d
• d. c > d

KMU MDCAT Answer Key – Past Papers 2024

Biology

Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer

1. b

2. b

3. c

4. c

5. d

6. d

7. c

8. a

9. d

10. c

11. b

12. a

13. a

14. a

15. c

16. d

17. c

18. d

19. a

20. d

21. d

22. a

23. d

24. a

25. c

26. d

27. b

28. d

29. a

30. b

31. d

32. b

33. b

34. a

35. d

36. a

37. c

38. d

39. c

40. d

41. b

42. a

43. c

44. a

45. b

46. a

47. c

48. d

49. b

50. b

51. a

52. c

53. a

54. b

55. b

56. b

57. d

58. a

59. d

60. c

Chemistry

Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer

69. a

70. b

71. c

72. d

73. a

74. d

75. d

76. c

77. c

78. d

79. a

80. d

81. d

82. b

83. d

84. d

85. c

86. b

87. d

88. b

89. b

90. b

91. b

92. b

93. d

94. b

95. a

96. c

97. c

98. d

99. a

100. d

101. c

102. b

103. c

104. b

105. a

106. a

107. a

108. b

109. b

110. c

111. a

112. d

113. a

114. b

115. c

116. c

117. b

118. c

119. c

120. d

121. d

122. c

PHYSICS

Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer

123. d

124. c

125. b

126. a

127. c

128. a

129. b

130. d

131. d

132. c

133. c

134. b

135. d

136. c

137. b

138. d

139. c

140. d

141. c

142. b

143. b

144. b

145. c

146. a

147. a

148. a

149. a

150. d

151. a

152. c

153. d

154. a

155. a

156. c

157. b

158. d

159. c

160. c

161. b

162. a

163. a

164. a

165. c

166. c

167. b

168. d

169. c

170. a

171. a

172. c

173. c

174. b

175. a

176. b

English

Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer
177. d	178. d	179. a	180. d
181. d	182. c	183. c	184. c
185. b	186. a	187. d	188. d
189. b	190. d	191. d	192. d
193. a	194. d

Logical Reasoning

Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer	Q# and Answer
195. c	196. a	197. b	198. c
199. c	200. a

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