NUMS MDCAT PAST PAPERS 2022
Q1. Which organelle would be more abundant in the secretory cell than the non-secretory cell?
- a) Lysosome
- b) Golgi complex
- c) Vacuole
- d) Centrioles
Q2. The structure which disappeared during cell division is:
- a) Vacuole
- b) Lysosome
- c) Nucleus
- d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q3. The enzyme ATP synthase is located on the membrane of the organelle:
- a) Nucleus
- b) Mitochondria
- c) Lysosome
- d) Vacuole
Q4. Which of the following is correct for the cell wall?
- a) Semi-permeable
- b) Differentially permeable
- c) Permeable
- d) Not permeable
Q5. Why is the plasma membrane said to be asymmetrical?
- a) Proteins are not fixed at their position
- b) Hydrophobic tail facing inward and hydrophilic head facing outward
- c) The two surfaces and halves are not identical
- d) None of the above
Q6. The following part is common in both the digestive system and respiratory systems of human beings:
- a) Trachea
- b) Pharynx
- c) Larynx
- d) Oesophagus
Q7. Heartbeat is normally regulated by:
- a) Purkinje fibers
- b) AV bundle
- c) Sinoatrial node
- d) Bundle of His
Q8. The method which helps in developing immunity against bacteria is:
- a) Radiotherapy
- b) Chemotherapy
- c) Vaccination
- d) Antibiotics
Q9. Normal gestation period in humans is about — days:
- a) 300-320
- b) 270-280
- c) 240-250
- d) 300-320
Q10. During the menstrual cycle, after the female gamete is released from the ovary in ovulation, the remains of the follicle secrete:
- a) Progesterone
- b) FSH
- c) LH
- d) Testosterone
Q11. In the male reproductive system, the hormone involved in the regulation of the rate of spermatogenesis is called:
- a) Luteinizing hormone
- b) Follicle-stimulating hormone
- c) Testosterone
- d) Inhibin
Q12. Cervix is the part of:
- a) Vagina
- b) Oviduct
- c) Uterus
- d) Ovary
Q13. Which of the following is most abundant in the human body?
- a) Fibrous
- b) Hyaline
- c) Elastic
- d) Flexible
Q14. Which of the following is an example of a joint called suture?
- a) Skull bone
- b) Costal cartilage
- c) Pubic symphysis
- d) Intervertebral disc
Q15. Which event does not occur during muscle contraction?
- a) I-band shortens
- b) A-band shortens
- c) H-zone disappears
- d) Z-lines move closer
Q16. Smooth muscles are long and spindle-shaped with nucleus per cell:
- a) One
- b) Two
- c) Three
- d) Many
Q17. Blood group which is known as a universal donor is:
- a) A
- b) AB
- c) O
- d) AB+
Q18. Which one can be considered as living characteristic of a virus?
- a) Can be crystallized
- b) No cellular respiration
- c) Mutate their genetic material
- d) Lack biosynthetic machinery
Q19. A group of organisms with similar morphology and physiology, which can breed together to produce fertile offspring is called:
- a) Species
- b) Domain
- c) Kingdom
- d) Diversity
Q20. In the presence of oxygen, the complete breakdown of glucose produces — ATP molecules in prokaryotes:
- a) 20
- b) 36
- c) 38
- d) 40
Q21. What are the products of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
- a) ATP, RuBP, and reduced NAD
- b) ATP, oxygen, and reduced NADP
- c) GP, oxygen, and reduced NAD
- d) GP, reduced NADP, and RuBP
Q22. In the process of photosynthesis, water acts as:
- a) Proton acceptor
- b) Electron donor
- c) CO2 reducer
- d) CO2 accepter
Q23. During photosynthesis, CO2 works as:
- a) Proton donor
- b) Electron donor
- c) Proton acceptor
- d) Source of O2
Q24. End product of Calvin cycle is:
- a) 3-phosphoglycerate
- b) 1,3-biphosphoglycerate
- c) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
- d) Glucose
Q25. Which of the following molecules contains amino acids?
- a) Cellulose
- b) Collagen
- c) Sucrose
- d) Ascorbic acid
Q26. Hydrolysis is the breakdown of polymer into its monomers by the addition of:
- a) Hydroxyl group
- b) Hydrogen
- c) Water
- d) Nitrogen
Q27. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
- a) Glucose (C6H12O6)
- b) Sucrose (C12H22O11)
- c) Rhamnose (C6H12O5)
- d) Lactic acid (C3H6O3)
Q28. Due to its high heat of vaporization, water plays an important role in living organisms as:
- a) Being an excellent solvent
- b) Cooling agent
- c) Membrane stabilizer
- d) Thermal shock resistor
Q29. Which molecules do not contribute to the formation of biological membranes?
- a) Glycoproteins
- b) Lipids
- c) Phospholipids
- d) Nucleoproteins
Q30. Which of the following molecules would yield glucose and fructose on hydrolysis?
- a) Starch
- b) Maltose
- c) Sucrose
- d) Lactose
Q31. The terminal ends of the chromosomes are:
- a) Satellite
- b) Kinetochore
- c) Nucleolar organizer
- d) Telomere
Q32. The gap between neurons at a synapse is:
- a) Synaptic knob
- b) Synaptic cleft
- c) Synaptic delay
- d) Synaptic vesicle
Q33. The part of the brain which controls the body temperature in human beings is called:
- a) Thalamus
- b) Hypothalamus
- c) Pons
- d) Cerebellum
Q34. A long extension of a nerve cell is called:
- a) Axon
- b) Auxin
- c) Schwann cell
- d) Dendrites
Q35. Which is a steroid hormone?
- a) Cortisone
- b) Adrenaline
- c) Insulin
- d) Thyroxin
Q36. The molecules responsible for conveying messages from one neuron to the next are called:
- a) Hormones
- b) Activators
- c) Neurotransmitters
- d) Enzymes
Q37. Which enzyme works in alkaline pH?
- a) Pepsin
- b) Sucrose
- c) Enterokinase
- d) Pancreatic lipase
Q38. Considering enzyme action, the minimum temperature is the term used when:
- a) Enzymes start denaturing
- b) Enzyme becomes hyperactive
- c) Enzyme works at their best
- d) Inactive enzyme gets reactivated
Q39. Which option is correct about non-competitive inhibition?
- a) Malonate acts as an inhibitor
- b) Enzyme shape distorted
- c) Competition for active site
- d) Inactive enzyme gets reactivated
Q40. Which type of enzyme would be most active in your gut after eating a loaf of bread?
- a) Amylase
- b) Trypsin
- c) Lactase
- d) Carboxypeptidase
Q41. He presented the theory of “origin of species by means of natural selection”:
- a) Lamarck
- b) Linnaeus
- c) Hardy-Weinberg
- d) Darwin
Q42. Which is not a mode of action of an antibody?
- a) Precipitating an antigen
- b) Neutralizing an antigen
- c) Secreting cytokines
- d) Enhancing phagocytosis
Q43. Magnesium is an important nutrient in plants for the formation of:
- a) Proteins
- b) Lipids
- c) Chlorophylls
- d) Enzymes
Q44. Which of the following parts of the respiratory system has no cartilage?
- a) Larynx
- b) Trachea
- c) Bronchioles
- d) Bronchi
Q45. Enzymatic portion of the gastric juices is secreted by which mucosal cells?
- a) Oxyntic cells
- b) Chief cells
- c) Mucus cells
- d) Endocrine cells
Q46. The horizontal distance travelled by a wave during one complete cycle is called:
- a) Frequency
- b) Wavelength
- c) Amplitude
- d) Time period
Q47. If the period of oscillation of a man (M) suspended from a spring is 1s, then the period of 16M will be:
- a) 1s
- b) 2s
- c) 3s
- d) 4s
Q48. Loudness of the sound is directly related to:
- a) Intensity of sound
- b) Frequency of sound
- c) Wavelength of sound
- d) Pitch of sound
Q49. The increase in the speed of sound in air for each degree rise above 0°C is:
- a) 0.40 m/s
- b) 0.51 m/s
- c) 0.81 m/s
- d) 0.61 m/s
Q50. First law of thermodynamics is based on:
- a) Law of conservation of momentum
- b) Law of conservation of mass
- c) Law of conservation of charge
- d) Law of conservation of energy
Q51. The thermodynamic process during which the pressure is kept constant is called:
- a) Isochoric process
- b) Adiabatic process
- c) Isobaric process
- d) Isothermal process
Q52. Energy stored in a capacitor is given by:
- a) E = ½ C V²
- b) E = 2 C V²
- c) E = C V²
- d) E = 2 C V
Q53. Electric field intensity is:
- a) Force per unit mass
- b) Force per unit tesla
- c) Force per unit charge
- d) Force per unit watt
Q54. It stores electrical potential energy:
- a) Capacitor
- b) Conductor
- c) Inductor
- d) Generator
Q55. A magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as the temperature of the conductor is kept constant. It is a statement of:
- a) Joule’s law
- b) Gauss’s law
- c) Ohm’s law
- d) Ampere’s law
Q56. The resistance of pure metal increases with:
- a) Increase in temperature
- b) Increase in pressure
- c) Decrease in temperature
- d) Decrease in pressure
Q57. The magnetic field inside the current-carrying wire varies:
- a) Inversely with r
- b) Inversely with r²
- c) Directly with r
- d) Directly with r²
Q58. Magnetic flux is maximum when the angle between magnetic field and vector area is:
- a) 0°
- b) 90°
- c) 30°
- d) 45°
Q59. Lenz’s law is based on the law of conservation of:
- a) Mass
- b) Energy
- c) Charge
- d) Momentum
Q60. In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the thumb indicates:
- a) Force
- b) Magnetic field
- c) Induced current
- d) Electric field
Q61. Transformer works on the principle of:
- a) Half-wave rectification
- b) Self-Induction
- c) Mutual Induction
- d) Full-wave rectification
Q62. A device that converts AC into DC is called:
- a) Diode
- b) Transistor
- c) Capacitor
- d) Inductor
Q63. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called:
- a) Amplification
- b) Rectification
- c) Magnification
- d) Resolution
Q64. 1 Gy is equal to:
- a) 1 J/kg
- b) 1 J·kg⁻¹
- c) 1 J·kg
- d) J·kg⁻¹
Q65. A 32g radioactive element decays and remains 2g after 60 days. What is the half-life of the radioactive element?
- a) 2 days
- b) 6 days
- c) 10 days
- d) 15 days
Q66. An elastic collision is the one in which:
- a) Kinetic energy and momentum are conserved
- b) Kinetic energy is conserved but total energy is not conserved
- c) Momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
- d) Both kinetic energy and momentum are not conserved
Q67. The time rate of change of velocity is called:
- a) Force
- b) Acceleration
- c) Power
- d) Energy
Q68. In projectile motion, the range of the projectile will be maximum at an angle of:
- a) 30 degrees
- b) 45 degrees
- c) 60 degrees
- d) 90 degrees
Q69. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
- a) Action and reaction have the same nature
- b) Action and reaction have the same line of action
- c) Action and reaction never act on the same body
- d) Action and reaction can cancel each other
Q70. Two buses moving at 100 km/h and 80 km/h respectively cross each other while moving in opposite directions. Velocity of one bus relative to the other bus is:
- a) 100 km/h
- b) 20 km/h
- c) 80 km/h
- d) 180 km/h
Q71. Which of the following pair of angles have the same range for a projectile?
- a) 10° and 20°
- b) 75° and 15°
- c) 45° and 60°
- d) 0° and 30°
Q72. The angle of projection of a projectile for which its maximum height and horizontal range are equal is:
- a) 45°
- b) 30°
- c) 60°
- d) 90°
Q73. The explosion of explosive material is an application of:
- a) Law of conservation of energy
- b) Law of conservation of mass
- c) Law of conservation of momentum
- d) Newton’s third law of motion
Q74. 1 hp is equal to:
- a) 476 watts
- b) 647 watts
- c) 746 watts
- d) 467 watts
Q75. The product of force and velocity is equal to:
- a) Kinetic energy
- b) Potential energy
- c) Power
- d) Work done
Q76. One kilowatt-hour is equal to:
- a) 3.6 MJ
- b) 36 KJ
- c) 36 KJ
- d) None of the above
Q77. The amount of work done in moving a body at a certain point in a gravitational field to a position of zero potential such that the body is never accelerated is called:
- a) Kinetic energy
- b) Potential energy
- c) Gravitational potential energy
- d) Absolute potential energy
Q78. If the speed of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
- a) 2mv²
- b) mv²
- c) 4mv²
- d) mv
Q79. An electric motor of power 2hp is installed in an industrial unit. Its power is:
- a) 1500W
- b) 742W
- c) 148W
- d) 1492W
Q80. 1 radian =
- a) 5.7°
- b) 73.5°
- c) 57.3°
- d) 37.5°
Q81. The minimum required velocity to put a satellite into the orbit is called:
- a) Terminal velocity
- b) Escape velocity
- c) Critical velocity
- d) Average velocity
Q82. A rotating wheel completes 12 revolutions in 4 seconds. Find the average angular velocity in rad/sec:
- a) 24.6 rad/s
- b) 16.8 rad/s
- c) 10.4 rad/s
- d) 18.8 rad/s
Q83. When an object experiences circular motion, the direction of centripetal acceleration is:
- a) Towards center
- b) Along tangent
- c) Along the direction of motion
- d) Opposite of the direction of motion
Q84. The crest of a wave acts as:
- a) Concave lens
- b) Convex lens
- c) Convex mirror
- d) Plane mirror
Q85. The speed of sound in air does not depend on:
- a) Density of medium
- b) Pressure
- c) Temperature
- d) Moisture
Q86. Choose the correct option:
- a) He had no worries, his pension was adequate, and there was a little money saved up besides.
- b) He had no worries his pension was adequate and there was a little money saved up besides.
- c) He had no worries; his pension was adequate, and there was a little money saved up besides.
- d) He had no worries; his pension was adequate and there was a little money saved up besides.
Q87. Identify the errors and choose the correct option:
- a) There’s Mr. Hashim whom they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
- b) There’s Mr. Hashim who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
- c) There’s Mr. Hashim which they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
- d) There’s Mr. Hashim who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
Q88. A full description of car accidents:
- a) Are
- b) Have been
- c) Was
- d) Were reported
Q89. Ahmad __ me for a long time.
- a) Know
- b) Have known
- c) Knows
- d) Knew
Q90. He is appreciated for being ambidextrous. The underlined word means:
- a) Active and skillful
- b) Uses skills and wisdom
- c) Uses both hands for same skills
- d) Remains to the point
Q91. He visited the ghettos for the first time. The underlined word means:
- a) Clean area
- b) Underprivileged area
- c) Privileged area
- d) Modernly constructed
Q92. My friend has a fine __ of old stamps.
- a) Group
- b) Bridge
- c) Band
- d) Collection
Q93. Choose the correct option:
- a) Every one of the prisons are full.
- b) Every one of the prisons had full.
- c) Every one of the prisons have full.
- d) Every one of the prisons is full.
Q94. The head master __ to speak to you.
- a) Wants
- b) is wanting
- c) was wanting
- d) Want
Q95. Knowledge and wisdom no time for connection.
- a) Has
- b) Have
- c) Is
- d) Are
Q96. Each of three boys _____ to ride.
- a) Loves
- b) Love
- c) Are loving
- d) Have loved
Q97. Choose the correctly structured sentence:
- a) Mr. Shan, with his family together goes to England
- b) Mr. Shan, together with his family, goes to England.
- c) Mr. Shan, together with his family, go to England.
- d) Mr. Shan, with his family, go to England together.
Q98. Identify the errors and choose the correct option:
- a) The English man thinks that he and his country are the best.
- b) The English man think that he and his country are the best.
- c) The English man thinks that he and his country are the best.
- d) The English man think that he and his country are best.
Q99. Pick the word with the correct spelling:
- a) Appratus
- b) Apprattus
- c) Appretous
- d) Apparatus
Q100. Pick the word with the correct spelling:
- a) Mercenery
- b) Mersanary
- c) Mercenary
- d) Mersenary
Q101. Chemistry: Which of the following molecules is covalent in nature?
- a) NaCl
- b) KCl
- c) HCl
- d) NH₃
Q102. Which of the following property increases down the group in alkali metals?
- a) Ionization energy
- b) Reactivity
- c) Electron affinity
- d) Electronegativity
Q103. The solubility of alkaline earth metals:
- a) Decreases down the group
- b) Increases down the group
- c) Remains constant throughout the group
- d) First increases then decreases down the group
Q104. Geometric isomerism is exhibited by:
- a) Alcohol
- b) Ethers
- c) Alkynes
- d) Alkenes
Q105. Benzene can be formed from phenol in which of the following reactions?
- a) Reduction with hydrogen in the presence of Ni
- b) Reduction with zinc
- c) Reduction with alkali
- d) Reduction with acids
Q106. Lucas test is used for the identification of:
- a) Alkyl halides
- b) Alcohols
- c) Alkenes
- d) Carboxylic acids
Q107. Phenol has the following characteristics and physical states:
- a) Colorless crystalline solid
- b) Colorless crystalline deliquescent solid
- c) Colorless amorphous solid
- d) Colorless amorphous deliquescent solid
Q108. Cinnazzaro’s reaction is given by:
- a) Formaldehyde
- b) Acetaldehyde
- c) Acetone
- d) Butanone
Q109. The identification test for ketones is:
- a) Benedict’s Solution Test
- b) Tehling’s Solution Test
- c) Sodium Nitroprusside Test
- d) Town’s Test
Q110. Carboxylic acids are water-soluble because they:
- a) Are more reactive
- b) Have hydrogen bonding
- c) Have a low melting point
- d) Have high density
Q111. Which of the following represents the equation for an ideal gas?
- a) PV = nRT
- b) PT = nRv
- c) P = nRT
- d) T = nPV/R
Q112. How should the conditions be changed to prevent the value of a given gas from expanding when its mass is increased?
- a) Temperature is lowered & pressure is increased
- b) Temperature is increased & pressure is lowered
- c) Temperature & pressure both are lowered
- d) Temperature & pressure both are increased
Q113. Which variable mentioned in ideal gas law is assumed to be constant in other gas laws?
- a) Volume
- b) Temperature
- c) Pressure
- d) Number of moles
Q114. Which of the following molecules will show a higher rate of evaporation?
- a) Acetone
- b) Ethanol
- c) Water
- d) Ethylene glycol
Q115. Specific heat of water is:
- a) 418 J/g°C
- b) 982 J/g°C
- c) 6.04 J/g°C
- d) 8.47 J/g°C
Q116. The boiling point of a compound is mostly raised by:
- a) Dipole-induced dipole interaction
- b) London dispersion forces
- c) Intramolecular H-bonding
- d) Intermolecular H-bonding
Q117. Which of the following statement explains the solubility of a tonic substance in water?
- a) Water molar mass is 18.02
- b) Water forms dative bonding
- c) Water molecule is polar
- d) Water has high density
Q118. Nature of diamond as solid is:
- a) Covalent
- b) Ionic
- c) Molecular
- d) Metallic
Q119. Which one of the following is as light as a feather and as strong as iron?
- a) Graphite
- b) Graphene
- c) Mercury
- d) Diamond
Q120. The pH of human blood is:
- a) 7.35-7.45
- b) 8.35-8.45
- c) 6.35-7.45
- d) 5.5-6.5
Q121. Proton number of Na₁ is:
- a) 23
- b) 1
- c) 12
- d) 34
Q122. One mole of ethanol and one mole of ethane have an equal:
- a) Mass
- b) Number of atoms
- c) Number of electrons
- d) Number of molecules
Q123. The 1st step involved in the determination of the Empirical Formula of a chemical compound is:
- a) Finding the number of gram atoms of each element
- b) Percentage composition of each element
- c) Atomic ratio of each element
- d) Multiplication of atomic ratio with a whole number
Q124. The number of moles of CO₂ that contains 16g of oxygen is:
- a) 0.25
- b) 0.5
- c) 1.0
- d) 1.50
Q125. Percentage composition of mass in CO₂ is:
- a) 30.45% Carbon & 69.54% Oxygen
- b) 24.22% Carbon & 75.78% Oxygen
- c) 27.37% Carbon & 72.72% Oxygen
- d) 41.68% Carbon & 58.12% Oxygen
Q126. Maximum electrons that can be placed in the p subshell are:
- a) 2
- b) 4
- c) 6
- d) 8
Q127. Apply the n+l rule and calculate which of the following orbitals has maximum energy?
- a) 3p
- b) 4s
- c) 3d
- d) 4d
Q128. The mass of an electron is:
- a) 1836 times more than the mass of a proton
- b) 1836 times less than the mass of a proton
- c) 1836 times more than the mass of a neutron
- d) 1836 times more than the mass of a hydrogen atom
Q129. The shape of an orbital is determined by which quantum number?
- a) n
- b) l
- c) m
- d) s
Q130. The electronic configuration for degenerate orbitals is explained by:
- a) Aufbau Principle
- b) n+l Rule
- c) Hund’s Rule
- d) Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
Q131. Which term describes a solution in which dissolved solute is in equilibrium with undissolved solute?
- a) Dilute
- b) Saturated
- c) Unsaturated
- d) Supersaturated
Q132. Rate of any reaction depends upon:
- a) Temperature
- b) Concentration
- c) Pressure
- d) Rate constant
Q133. What is “NOT TRUE” about the rate of a reaction?
- a) Concentration of reactants does not affect the rate of a reaction
- b) Surface area of reactants affects the rate of reaction
- c) Concentration affects the rate of reaction
- d) Catalyst affects the rate of a reaction
Q134. Enthalpy change of combustion is exothermic because:
- a) Energy released in bond breaking is greater
- b) Energy released in bond making is greater
- c) Energy absorbed in bond breaking is greater
- d) Energy absorbed in bond making is greater
Q135. One Calorie is equivalent to:
- a) 4184 J
- b) 4184k
- c) 0.4184 J
- d) 0.4184k
Q136. Potential of Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is arbitrarily taken as:
- a) 10
- b) 1
- c) 0
- d) Zero
Q137. During electrolysis, reduction always occurs at:
- a) Anode
- b) Cathode
- c) SHE
- d) Saltbridge
Q138. Type of hybridization of carbon in Ethene (C₂H₄) is:
- a) sp³
- b) sp²
- c) sp
- d) dsp²
Q139. Which of the following molecules is polar?
- a) CCl₄
- b) CH₄
- c) CO₂
- d) H₂O
Q140. Electron affinity decreases down the group because:
- a) Proton number increases
- b) Atomic radius increases
- c) Electron shielding increases
- d) Rate constant decreases
Q141. Which of the following is true regarding the periodic table?
- a) Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shells.
- b) Elements in the same group have similar chemical properties.
- c) Elements in the same period have similar atomic masses.
- d) Elements in the same period have the same electron configuration.
Q142. Which type of chemical bond is formed when electrons are shared between atoms?
- a) Ionic bond
- b) Covalent bond
- c) Hydrogen bond
- d) Metallic bond
Q143. Which of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?
- a) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
- b) Methane (CH₄)
- c) Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
- d) Oxygen (O₂)
Q144. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?
- a) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
- b) NaCl → Na + Cl₂
- c) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
- d) CO₂ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + O₂
Q145. Which of the following is the most common isotope of hydrogen?
- a) Deuterium
- b) Tritium
- c) Protium
- d) Hydrogen-1
Q146. What is the atomic number of the element with the symbol Ca?
- a) 20
- b) 40
- c) 10
- d) 16
Q147. The force of attraction between two masses is inversely proportional to:
- a) The square of the distance between them.
- b) The square root of the distance between them.
- c) The distance between them.
- d) The cube of the distance between them.
Q148. What is the SI unit of force?
- a) Newton
- b) Joule
- c) Watt
- d) Pascal
Q149. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
- a) Burning of wood
- b) Melting of ice
- c) Rusting of iron
- d) Digesting food
Q150. Which of the following is a characteristic of a chemical reaction?
- a) Change in the state of matter
- b) Change in color
- c) Formation of gas or solid
- d) All of the above
NUMS MDCAT Answer key 2022 Past Papers
| Question | Answer | Question | Answer | Question | Answer |
|---|
| 1 | B | 51 | D | 101 | B |
| 2 | C | 52 | C | 102 | D |
| 3 | B | 53 | C | 103 | D |
| 4 | C | 54 | C | 104 | A |
| 5 | D | 55 | B | 105 | B |
| 6 | A | 56 | B | 106 | A |
| 7 | C | 57 | D | 107 | B |
| 8 | C | 58 | A | 108 | C |
| 9 | C | 59 | D | 109 | D |
| 10 | C | 60 | D | 110 | C |
| 11 | B | 61 | C | 111 | C |
| 12 | A | 62 | A | 112 | B |
| 13 | A | 63 | C | 113 | A |
| 14 | C | 64 | A | 114 | D |
| 15 | D | 65 | C | 115 | B |
| 16 | B | 66 | A | 116 | B |
| 17 | C | 67 | D | 117 | B |
| 18 | C | 68 | A | 118 | A |
| 19 | C | 69 | B | 119 | C |
| 20 | A | 70 | A | 120 | B |
| 21 | D | 71 | C | 121 | A |
| 22 | C | 72 | A | 122 | A |
| 23 | B | 73 | B | 123 | D |
| 24 | B | 74 | B | 124 | A |
| 25 | B | 75 | D | 125 | A |
| 26 | A | 76 | A | 126 | D |
| 27 | B | 77 | B | 127 | C |
| 28 | C | 78 | B | 128 | A |
| 29 | A | 79 | D | 129 | B |
| 30 | D | 80 | D | 130 | A |
| 31 | B | 81 | B | 131 | B |
| 32 | B | 82 | D | 132 | D |
| 33 | C | 83 | C | 133 | B |
| 34 | C | 84 | C | 134 | B |
| 35 | B | 85 | C | 135 | C |
| 36 | C | 86 | B | 136 | B |
| 37 | D | 87 | D | 137 | A |
| 38 | B | 88 | B | 138 | B |
| 39 | D | 89 | A | 139 | B |
| 40 | C | 90 | C | 140 | C |
| 41 | D | 91 | C | 141 | B |
| 42 | B | 92 | D | 142 | A |
| 43 | B | 93 | A | 143 | A |
| 44 | A | 94 | B | 144 | A |
| 45 | A | 95 | B | 145 | A |
| 46 | C | 96 | C | 146 | D |
| 47 | D | 97 | B | 147 | B |
| 48 | A | 100 | C | 150 | B |
